ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is assessing pain levels in a critically ill patient . The nurse recognizes that which patient action as indicatin g the greatest level of pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C (Grimacing) Rationale: 1. Grimacing is a universal nonverbal sign of pain. 2. It involves facial muscles, indicating a high level of discomfort. 3. Brow lowering and eyelid closing are subtle signs, less indicative of severe pain. 4. Staring may signify concentration, not necessarily pain. Summary: Grimacing is the correct choice as it directly correlates with pain intensity, unlike the other options which are less specific or relevant indicators of severe pain.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for an elderly patient who was admitted with renal insufficiency. An expected laboratory finding for this patient may be
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a normal serum creatinine level. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys are not able to filter waste products effectively, leading to an increase in serum creatinine levels. This is a common indicator of renal dysfunction. A: An increased GFR would not be expected in renal insufficiency, as it signifies improved kidney function. C: Increased ability to excrete drugs is not a typical finding in renal insufficiency, as impaired kidney function can lead to drug accumulation. D: Hypokalemia is not directly related to renal insufficiency. It is more commonly associated with factors like diuretic use or gastrointestinal losses.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient with severe neurological impairment following a massive stroke. The primary care provider has ordered tests to detearbmirbi.ncoem b/treasit n death. The nurse understands that criteria for brain death includes what crite ria? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of cerebral blood flow. Brain death is determined by the irreversible cessation of all brain functions, including blood flow to the brain. When there is no cerebral blood flow, the brain is unable to function, leading to brain death. This criterion is essential in diagnosing brain death as it indicates a complete loss of brain function. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: - B: Absence of brainstem reflexes on neurological examination is a common sign of brain death, but it is not the primary criterion. - C: Presence of Cheyne-Stokes respirations is not indicative of brain death. It is a pattern of breathing that can be seen in various conditions, not specifically brain death. - D: Confirmation of a flat electroencephalogram is a supportive test for brain death but not the primary criterion. The absence of brain activity on an EEG can help confirm brain death but is not as definitive as the absence of cerebral blood flow.
Question 4 of 5
A client is receiving atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infarction. The nurse determines the client's apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse implement next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer the medication. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to reduce heart rate and blood pressure. In this scenario, the client's apical pulse of 65 beats per minute is within the normal range for a client taking atenolol after a myocardial infarction. Therefore, the nurse should proceed with administering the medication as prescribed to help maintain the client's heart rate and blood pressure within the therapeutic range. A: Measuring the blood pressure is important but not the immediate next step as the client's heart rate is within the normal range. B: Reassessing the apical pulse is unnecessary since it is already within the normal range for a client on atenolol. C: Notifying the healthcare provider is not indicated as there are no signs of concern with the client's heart rate at 65 bpm.
Question 5 of 5
While caring for a patient with a small bowel obstruction, the nurse assesses a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 1 mm Hg and hourly urine output of 5 mL. The nurse anticipates which therapeutic intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intravenous fluids. In the scenario of a small bowel obstruction, a PAOP of 1 mm Hg indicates hypovolemia requiring fluid resuscitation to improve cardiac output and tissue perfusion. The low urine output suggests inadequate renal perfusion, further supporting the need for fluids. Diuretics (choice A) would worsen the hypovolemia. Negative inotropic agents (choice C) decrease cardiac contractility, which is not indicated in this scenario. Vasopressors (choice D) are used for hypotension, not for hypovolemia. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to administer intravenous fluids to address the hypovolemia and improve tissue perfusion.
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