Critical Care Nursing Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intravenous fluids. In the scenario of a small bowel obstruction, a PAOP of 1 mm Hg indicates hypovolemia requiring fluid resuscitation to improve cardiac output and tissue perfusion. The low urine output suggests inadequate renal perfusion, further supporting the need for fluids. Diuretics (choice A) would worsen the hypovolemia. Negative inotropic agents (choice C) decrease cardiac contractility, which is not indicated in this scenario. Vasopressors (choice D) are used for hypotension, not for hypovolemia. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to administer intravenous fluids to address the hypovolemia and improve tissue perfusion.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer the medication. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to reduce heart rate and blood pressure. In this scenario, the client's apical pulse of 65 beats per minute is within the normal range for a client taking atenolol after a myocardial infarction. Therefore, the nurse should proceed with administering the medication as prescribed to help maintain the client's heart rate and blood pressure within the therapeutic range. A: Measuring the blood pressure is important but not the immediate next step as the client's heart rate is within the normal range. B: Reassessing the apical pulse is unnecessary since it is already within the normal range for a client on atenolol. C: Notifying the healthcare provider is not indicated as there are no signs of concern with the client's heart rate at 65 bpm.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: multiplied by 0.85. This is because women typically have lower muscle mass compared to men, resulting in lower creatinine production. Therefore, to adjust for this difference, the creatinine clearance for women is multiplied by 0.85. This correction factor helps to more accurately estimate the GFR in women. Choices A and B are incorrect because the creatinine clearance for women is not the same as or greater than that for men due to the physiological differences in muscle mass. Choice D is also incorrect as multiplying by 1.15 would overestimate the GFR in women.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paralysis. Neuromuscular blocking agents work by blocking the transmission of nerve impulses at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis. This is essential in ventilated patients to facilitate mechanical ventilation and prevent patient-ventilator dyssynchrony. Rationale: A: Analgesia - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide pain relief. They do not have any direct analgesic properties. B: Anticonvulsant - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not prevent or treat seizures. They do not have anticonvulsant effects. D: Sedation - While sedatives may be used in conjunction with neuromuscular blocking agents, the primary mode of action of these agents is muscle paralysis, not sedation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zero reference the transducer system at the phlebostatic axis. This is the most important action before obtaining a cardiac output because zero referencing ensures accurate pressure readings. The phlebostatic axis is the level of the atria when the patient is supine, and zeroing at this point minimizes errors in pressure measurements. Choice A is incorrect because documenting a pulmonary artery catheter occlusion pressure is not the priority at this stage. Choice C is incorrect as inflating the balloon with air should be done after zero referencing. Choice D is incorrect as injecting normal saline into the port is not necessary before zero referencing.