Critical Care Nursing Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zero reference the transducer system at the phlebostatic axis. This is the most important action before obtaining a cardiac output because zero referencing ensures accurate pressure readings. The phlebostatic axis is the level of the atria when the patient is supine, and zeroing at this point minimizes errors in pressure measurements. Choice A is incorrect because documenting a pulmonary artery catheter occlusion pressure is not the priority at this stage. Choice C is incorrect as inflating the balloon with air should be done after zero referencing. Choice D is incorrect as injecting normal saline into the port is not necessary before zero referencing.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: �The fistula will be usable in about 4 to 6 weeks.� The rationale for this is that an arteriovenous fistula typically requires 4 to 6 weeks to mature and be ready for use. During this time, the fistula develops the necessary blood flow for efficient dialysis. Choice A is incorrect because immediate use of the fistula is not recommended as it needs time to mature. Choice B is incorrect as it underestimates the time needed for the fistula to heal and mature. Choice D is incorrect as the usability of the fistula is not dependent on the manufacturer but rather on the patient's individual healing process.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Volume overload. In acute kidney injury, impaired kidney function leads to fluid retention, causing volume overload. Dialysis helps remove excess fluid to restore fluid balance. Acidosis and hyperkalemia are potential complications of acute kidney injury but not the primary reasons for initiating dialysis. Hypokalemia is unlikely in acute kidney injury due to impaired excretion of potassium by the kidneys. Therefore, the most common reason for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury is to manage volume overload.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bundle of care. A bundle of care refers to a set of evidence-based interventions that, when implemented together, have been shown to improve patient outcomes. In this scenario, keeping the head of the bed elevated, daily awakening from sedation, and oral care protocols are bundled together to reduce the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia. This approach is based on the idea that implementing multiple interventions simultaneously is more effective than individual interventions alone. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because: B: Clinical practice guidelines provide recommendations for healthcare providers based on evidence but do not necessarily involve a group of interventions bundled together. C: Patient safety goals are specific objectives aimed at improving patient safety outcomes, but they do not specifically refer to a group of interventions bundled together. D: Quality improvement initiatives focus on improving processes and outcomes in healthcare settings but do not necessarily involve a group of interventions bundled together for a specific purpose like in this case.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR). PVR is the most appropriate parameter to monitor in a patient with pulmonary hypertension as it directly reflects the resistance in the pulmonary circulation. A decrease in PVR indicates a reduction in the constriction of blood vessels in the lungs, suggesting improvement in pulmonary hypertension. Monitoring CVP (A) is more relevant in assessing fluid status, SVR (B) is more indicative of systemic vascular tone, and PAWP (D) is useful in assessing left-sided heart function, but they are not as specific to evaluating the effectiveness of treatment for pulmonary hypertension.