microbiology chapter 12 test bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it lists the genera that belong to the family Reoviridae accurately. Orthoreovirus and Rotavirus are well-known genera within the family Reoviridae. Orbivirus is another genus belonging to the same family. Choice B is incorrect because Orthoretrovirus and Retrovirus are not part of the Reoviridae family. Orbfiloviridae is also not a valid genus within this family. Choice C is incorrect because Orthoretrovirus and Retrovirus are not part of the Reoviridae family. Orbivirus is the correct genus but the other two are inaccurate. Choice D is incorrect because Orthoretrovirus and Retrovirus are not part of the Reoviridae family. Orbarenaviridaefiloviridae is not a valid genus within Reoviridae.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: bioavailability. Bioavailability refers to the extent and rate at which a drug reaches its site of action in the body. This includes factors such as absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Rationale: 1. Bioactivity refers to the pharmacological effect of a drug, not how effectively it reaches its site of action. 2. Bioremediation is the process of using organisms to remove or neutralize pollutants, not related to drug delivery. 3. Biostasis refers to a state of equilibrium or balance in living organisms, not related to drug transport to its site of action. In summary, bioavailability is the most appropriate term as it specifically addresses the process of a drug reaching its intended target within the body, distinguishing it from the other choices.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Non-tender chancre (ulcus durum). In the primary stage of syphilis, an individual typically develops a painless ulcer known as a chancre at the site of infection. This ulcer is usually firm, round, and clean with well-defined borders. It is important to note that it is non-tender, which distinguishes it from other skin conditions. This characteristic helps healthcare providers differentiate syphilis from other sexually transmitted infections. Explanation for other choices: A: Diffuse maculopapular rash - This is more commonly associated with secondary syphilis. B: Purulent exudation from the urethra - This is not a typical presentation of primary syphilis. C: Syphilitic granulomas (gummas) - Gummas typically develop in the tertiary stage of syphilis, not in the primary stage.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1. Water testing facilities typically handle low-risk microorganisms, hence requiring Biosafety Level 1. BSL 1 is suitable for working with well-characterized agents not known to consistently cause disease in healthy adults. BSL 2 is for moderate-risk agents, BSL 3 for high-risk agents, and BSL 4 for dangerous pathogens. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect for water testing facilities due to the low risk involved in handling the microorganisms found in water samples.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intestinal trichomonad. This protozoan matches the description provided, with pyriform shape, twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, supporting filaments, and a suctorial disc. Lamblia (A) lacks flagella and supporting filaments. Toxoplasma (B) is an intracellular parasite with different morphology. Leishmania (C) belongs to a different class with no flagella or supporting filaments. In summary, the unique combination of features described in the question points to an intestinal trichomonad, making it the correct answer.