Microbiology Chapter 12 Test Bank

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Microbiology Chapter 12 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intestinal trichomonad. This protozoan matches the description provided, with pyriform shape, twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, supporting filaments, and a suctorial disc. Lamblia (A) lacks flagella and supporting filaments. Toxoplasma (B) is an intracellular parasite with different morphology. Leishmania (C) belongs to a different class with no flagella or supporting filaments. In summary, the unique combination of features described in the question points to an intestinal trichomonad, making it the correct answer.

Question 2 of 5

Which one is true for the bacterial cell?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Multiplies by binary fission. Bacterial cells reproduce through binary fission, where a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells. This process is essential for bacterial growth and multiplication. A: The oxidative phosphorylation does not take place in the mitochondria of bacterial cells but in the cell membrane. B: Capsules are not organelles but outer protective layers found in some bacterial cells. C: Bacterial cells contain both DNA and RNA, essential for their genetic information and protein synthesis.

Question 3 of 5

A patient with pneumonia had a sputum culture revealing Gram-positive diplococci. The bacteria were catalase-negative and alpha-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Gram-positive diplococci suggest a pneumococcal infection. Step 2: Catalase-negative indicates Streptococcus. Step 3: Alpha-hemolysis matches S. pneumoniae's characteristics. Therefore, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive, Neisseria meningitidis (C) is Gram-negative, and Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is not diplococci or alpha-hemolytic.

Question 4 of 5

The primary stage of syphilis is usually manifested as:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Non-tender chancre (ulcus durum). In the primary stage of syphilis, an individual typically develops a painless ulcer known as a chancre at the site of infection. This ulcer is usually firm, round, and clean with well-defined borders. It is important to note that it is non-tender, which distinguishes it from other skin conditions. This characteristic helps healthcare providers differentiate syphilis from other sexually transmitted infections. Explanation for other choices: A: Diffuse maculopapular rash - This is more commonly associated with secondary syphilis. B: Purulent exudation from the urethra - This is not a typical presentation of primary syphilis. C: Syphilitic granulomas (gummas) - Gummas typically develop in the tertiary stage of syphilis, not in the primary stage.

Question 5 of 5

What is the mechanism of action of the exotoxin C. Diphtheriae?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Inhibits protein synthesis. Exotoxin of C. Diphtheriae acts by inhibiting protein synthesis in host cells. This disrupts cellular functions and leads to tissue damage. Choice A is incorrect because acetylcholine release is not affected. Choice B is incorrect as it does not involve neurotransmitters. Choice D is incorrect as the exotoxin does have a specific mechanism.

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