Midwifery Exam Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Post-splenectomy, platelet count typically drops temporarily, leading to a risk of bleeding. Step 2: To compensate, the body increases hemoglobin (Hgb) levels to maintain oxygen-carrying capacity. Step 3: Therefore, on postoperative day 2, an increased Hgb level is expected. Summary: A is incorrect because MCV is not typically affected in this scenario. C is incorrect because platelet count usually decreases post-splenectomy. D is incorrect as albumin levels are not directly impacted by splenectomy for ITP.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pancreatitis. The clinical presentation of sudden, severe upper abdominal pain not related to food intake, along with the patient's position (lying on right side with hips and knees flexed), and presence of involuntary guarding suggest acute pancreatitis. The elevated white blood cell count indicates an inflammatory process. Dissecting aortic aneurysm (A) typically presents with abrupt, severe chest or back pain radiating to the abdomen, with signs of shock. Perforated peptic ulcer (C) presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain often related to food intake, with signs of peritonitis. Mallory-Weiss tear (D) presents with hematemesis after forceful or prolonged vomiting.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oligohydramnios. Oligohydramnios leads to reduced volume of amniotic fluid, which can result in poor fetal movements and inadequate cushioning for the fetus. This can increase the likelihood of abnormal fetal positions like shoulder presentation. Other choices are incorrect because: A: A sub-septate uterus is a structural uterine abnormality and not directly related to shoulder presentation. C: Prematurity may lead to preterm labor but is not specifically associated with shoulder presentation. D: Multiple pregnancy can increase the risk of malpresentation but is not a direct maternal cause of shoulder presentation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Persistent vomiting or nausea. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness characterized by persistent vomiting and nausea during pregnancy. This is the main clinical feature due to hormonal changes and increased sensitivity to certain odors. Choice B is incorrect as sight-related problems are not a typical feature of hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C is incorrect as persistent diarrhea is not a defining feature of this condition. Choice D is incorrect as frequency or urgency of micturition is not a primary symptom of hyperemesis gravidarum.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extraplacental haemorrhage. Incidental antepartum haemorrhage refers to bleeding from a source other than the placenta, such as the cervix or vagina, before delivery. Intraplacental haemorrhage (choice A) refers to bleeding within the placenta itself, not outside it. Intrapartum haemorrhage (choice B) occurs during labor and delivery, not before. Preterm haemorrhage (choice D) is not a specific term used to describe antepartum bleeding. Therefore, the correct term for antepartum bleeding from a non-placental source is extraplacental haemorrhage.