ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The AGACNP is rounding on a patient following splenectomy for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura. On postoperative day 2, a review of the laboratory studies is expected to reveal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Post-splenectomy, platelet count typically drops temporarily, leading to a risk of bleeding. Step 2: To compensate, the body increases hemoglobin (Hgb) levels to maintain oxygen-carrying capacity. Step 3: Therefore, on postoperative day 2, an increased Hgb level is expected. Summary: A is incorrect because MCV is not typically affected in this scenario. C is incorrect because platelet count usually decreases post-splenectomy. D is incorrect as albumin levels are not directly impacted by splenectomy for ITP.
Question 2 of 5
T. S. is a 31-year-old female who is admitted following a catastrophic industrial accident. She had multiple injuries, and after a 10-day hospital stay that included several operations and attempts to save her, she is declared brain dead. She had an organ donor notation on her drivers license. Which of the following circumstances precludes her from serving as a liver donor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A long history of alcohol use. In this case, the patient T. S. is brain dead following a catastrophic accident. Although she had an organ donor notation, her long history of alcohol use precludes her from serving as a liver donor. Chronic alcohol use can lead to liver damage and compromise the quality of the liver for transplantation. Encephalopathy (choice A) is a potential complication of liver disease, but it does not preclude her from being a liver donor. Hepatitis C infection (choice B) and biliary cirrhosis (choice D) may affect the liver, but they do not automatically disqualify her as a donor.
Question 3 of 5
Delivery of breech with an extended head is accomplished through
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver for delivery of breech with an extended head. This maneuver involves flexing the head while still in the vagina to allow for easier delivery. The Burns Marshall maneuver (A) is for impacted fetal shoulders, Lovset maneuver (B) is for shoulder dystocia, and McRobert's maneuver (D) is for shoulder dystocia as well. The Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver is specifically designed for delivering a breech with an extended head, making it the correct choice in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
The engaging diameter in a face presentation is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The engaging diameter in a face presentation is the sub-mento vertical diameter. This is the correct answer because it represents the distance from the tip of the chin (mentum) to the highest point on the skull (vertex), which is the most critical diameter for the face to descend through the pelvis during childbirth. Choice B (Sub-mento bregmatic diameter) is incorrect because it represents the distance from the tip of the chin to the anterior fontanelle, not the highest point on the skull. Choice C (Mento vertical diameter) is incorrect because it refers to the distance from the chin to the base of the skull, not the highest point on the skull. Choice D (Sub-occipito bregmatic diameter) is incorrect because it represents the distance from the base of the skull to the anterior fontanelle, not involving the chin.
Question 5 of 5
A cause of shoulder presentation is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oligohydramnios. Shoulder presentation occurs when the baby presents shoulder-first rather than head-first during birth. Oligohydramnios, a condition characterized by low levels of amniotic fluid, can lead to decreased uterine space, increasing the chances of abnormal fetal positioning. Macerated fetus (A) is associated with fetal decomposition, not shoulder presentation. Postdates pregnancy (B) is linked to increased risk of macrosomia but not shoulder presentation. Placenta abruption (D) is a separation of the placenta from the uterus, not a direct cause of shoulder presentation.
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