ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
In which form of hypospadias should circumcision be deferred in order to preserve the prepuce for later surgical repair?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In ventral displacement hypospadias, circumcision should be deferred to preserve prepuce for later surgical repair as the prepuce is needed for reconstruction. The prepuce can be used as a tissue graft to correct the hypospadias. In proximal displacement, the urethral opening is closer to the scrotum, making prepuce preservation less critical. Midscrotal hypospadias and meatus proximal to the corona do not typically involve prepuce preservation for surgical repair.
Question 2 of 5
A neonate of a smear-negative mother just before birth receives BCG as usual.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. This is because BCG vaccination for newborns is recommended even if the mother is smear-negative for tuberculosis, as it helps protect the newborn from severe forms of TB. Smear status of the mother does not impact the need for BCG vaccination in the neonate. Choice B is incorrect as it falsely implies that BCG should not be given in this scenario. Choices C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any information.
Question 3 of 5
Which one of the following fetal positions is associated with intense back pain during labor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Occipito-posterior. This position occurs when the baby's head is facing forward but towards the mother's spine. This position can cause intense back pain during labor because the baby's head puts pressure on the mother's lower back. Occipito-anterior (A) is the most common and ideal position for labor. Transverse position (B) is when the baby is lying sideways, which may cause prolonged labor but not necessarily intense back pain. Occipito-lateral (D) is a less common position where the baby's head is facing sideways, which may not specifically cause intense back pain.
Question 4 of 5
Janet is a 54-year-old female who is in the ICU following hepatic resection due to metastatic disease. She is expected to move to a general medical floor today. Morning labs are as follows serum bilirubin approximately 2 gdL, albumin 3.1 gdL, and prothrombin time 20 seconds. AST and ALT are 85 and 99 respectively. The appropriate response would be to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prepare for reoperation. Given the patient's elevated AST and ALT levels after hepatic resection, along with abnormal prothrombin time and low albumin, there is concern for liver dysfunction. This indicates a potential complication post-surgery, such as hepatic insufficiency or failure, necessitating reoperation for further evaluation and management. Cancelling the transfer (A) would delay necessary intervention. Infusing albumin and fresh frozen plasma (B) would address only the symptoms but not the underlying cause. Repeating labs the next day (C) would not address the urgency of the situation.
Question 5 of 5
A cause of shoulder presentation is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oligohydramnios. Shoulder presentation occurs when the baby presents shoulder-first rather than head-first during birth. Oligohydramnios, a condition characterized by low levels of amniotic fluid, can lead to decreased uterine space, increasing the chances of abnormal fetal positioning. Macerated fetus (A) is associated with fetal decomposition, not shoulder presentation. Postdates pregnancy (B) is linked to increased risk of macrosomia but not shoulder presentation. Placenta abruption (D) is a separation of the placenta from the uterus, not a direct cause of shoulder presentation.
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