Midwifery Exam Questions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oligohydramnios. Shoulder presentation occurs when the baby presents shoulder-first rather than head-first during birth. Oligohydramnios, a condition characterized by low levels of amniotic fluid, can lead to decreased uterine space, increasing the chances of abnormal fetal positioning. Macerated fetus (A) is associated with fetal decomposition, not shoulder presentation. Postdates pregnancy (B) is linked to increased risk of macrosomia but not shoulder presentation. Placenta abruption (D) is a separation of the placenta from the uterus, not a direct cause of shoulder presentation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because in deep transverse arrest, the sagittal suture of the fetal head is typically aligned with the oblique diameter of the pelvis, causing an obstruction in the descent of the baby. This alignment leads to a difficult labor scenario where the baby's head cannot pass through the pelvis due to the mismatch in diameters. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific anatomical alignment that characterizes deep transverse arrest. Choice A refers to occipito-frontal diameter, choice B refers to sub-occipito-bregmatic diameter, and choice C mentions a face to pubis delivery, which are not the defining features of deep transverse arrest.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperextension casting. The AGACNP knows that this treatment is appropriate for a condition that requires immobilization and support while allowing controlled movement. Hyperextension casting provides stability and support while promoting healing. Observation (A) would not provide adequate treatment for a condition requiring immobilization. Jewett brace (C) is typically used for spinal fractures, not for conditions that require hyperextension casting. Surgical intervention (D) would be considered if conservative measures like casting have failed.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clonic stage. In eclampsia, the clonic stage is characterized by violent contraction and relaxation of the whole body due to generalized seizures. During this stage, rhythmic jerking movements occur. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Coma stage - In this stage, the individual is unconscious and not experiencing violent body movements. C: Premonitory stage - This stage includes warning signs like headache and visual disturbances, but not the violent body movements seen in eclampsia. D: Tonic stage - This stage involves sustained muscle contractions without relaxation, unlike the alternating contraction and relaxation seen in the clonic stage of eclampsia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trial of scar. This term specifically refers to the process of attempting a vaginal birth after a previous caesarean section. It involves monitoring the previous cesarean scar for any signs of complications during labor. A: Spontaneous vaginal delivery refers to giving birth vaginally without any previous cesarean section. C: Spontaneous vertex delivery simply describes the position of the baby's head during birth. D: Trial of birth is not a commonly used term in obstetrics and does not specifically relate to VBAC.