ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Incidental antepartum haemorrhage is also referred to as
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extraplacental haemorrhage. Incidental antepartum haemorrhage refers to bleeding from a source other than the placenta, such as the cervix or vagina, before delivery. Intraplacental haemorrhage (choice A) refers to bleeding within the placenta itself, not outside it. Intrapartum haemorrhage (choice B) occurs during labor and delivery, not before. Preterm haemorrhage (choice D) is not a specific term used to describe antepartum bleeding. Therefore, the correct term for antepartum bleeding from a non-placental source is extraplacental haemorrhage.
Question 2 of 5
Extra-peritoneal uterine rupture: a) Define extra-peritoneal uterine rupture
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A rupture of the uterine wall confined to the tissue. Extra-peritoneal uterine rupture refers to a rupture that does not breach the peritoneal cavity, keeping the damage confined to the uterine tissue only. This is distinct from intra-peritoneal rupture which involves the peritoneum (choice B) and complete rupture of all uterine layers (choice D). Choice A is incorrect as it does not specify the location of the tear, and it does not necessarily imply that there is no organ damage.
Question 3 of 5
The complication that is associated with hyperemesis gravidarum is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wernicke's encephalopathy. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological complication due to thiamine deficiency, which can occur in severe cases of vomiting, leading to impaired brain function. Sheehan's syndrome is a complication of postpartum pituitary necrosis. Maurice encephalitis is a fictional term not related to this context. Antepartum bleeding is not a typical complication of hyperemesis gravidarum. Therefore, the correct answer is A due to the potential neurological impact of severe vomiting on thiamine levels.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following is an indication for forceps delivery?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Occipito posterior position. Forceps delivery may be indicated in this situation to help rotate the baby's head and facilitate delivery. Occipito posterior position can lead to prolonged labor and fetal distress, making forceps delivery necessary for a safe delivery. Incorrect choices: A: Cephalopelvic disproportion is not an indication for forceps delivery as it refers to mismatch between the size of the baby's head and the mother's pelvis. C: Breech presentation typically requires a different approach such as cesarean section rather than forceps delivery. D: Placenta abruption, a medical emergency, would not be managed with forceps delivery but rather require immediate intervention to prevent harm to both the mother and baby.
Question 5 of 5
Mechanism of labor in left occipito-posterior position:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation. In left occipito-posterior position, the fetus descends into the pelvis, engages in the maternal pelvis, undergoes flexion to fit through the birth canal, and internally rotates to align with the pelvis for delivery. Choice B (Extension, engagement, internal rotation, external rotation) is incorrect because extension is not typically seen in occipito-posterior positions. Choice C (Flexion, descent, external rotation) is incorrect because external rotation is not part of the mechanism in this position. Choice D (Descent, engagement, extension) is incorrect because extension is not typically seen in this position.
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