Midwifery Exam Questions

Questions 64

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Midwifery Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A neonate of a smear-negative mother just before birth receives BCG as usual.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. This is because BCG vaccination for newborns is recommended even if the mother is smear-negative for tuberculosis, as it helps protect the newborn from severe forms of TB. Smear status of the mother does not impact the need for BCG vaccination in the neonate. Choice B is incorrect as it falsely implies that BCG should not be given in this scenario. Choices C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any information.

Question 2 of 5

S. R. is a 51-year-old male patient who is being evaluated for fatigue. Over the last few months he has noticed a marked decrease in activity tolerance. Physical examination reveals a variety of ecchymoses of unknown origin. The CBC is significant for a Hgb of 10.1 gdL, an MCV of 72 fL and a platelet count of 65,000L the remainder of the CBC is normal. Coagulation studies are normal, but bleeding time is prolonged. The AGACNP recognizes that initial management of this patient will include

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoidance of elective surgery and nonessential medications. This is the initial management for a patient with thrombocytopenia and abnormal bleeding time, possibly indicating immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Avoiding surgery and medications that can worsen thrombocytopenia is crucial to prevent bleeding complications. Prednisone (B) is not the first-line treatment for ITP, especially without confirming the diagnosis. Monoclonal antibody therapy (C) such as rituximab is usually reserved for refractory cases. Splenectomy (D) is considered only if other treatments fail as a last resort.

Question 3 of 5

T. O. is a 44-year-old female patient who presents for evaluation of sudden, severe upper abdominal pain. She is clear about the onset, which was profound and occurred approximately one hour ago. She denies that the onset had any relationship to food or eating, and she denies nausea or vomiting. On examination, she is lying on her right side with her hips and knees flexed to draw her knees to her chest. Vital signs are stable, but examination reveals involuntary guarding. The abdomen is painful and tympanic to percussion in all quadrants. CBC reveals a white blood cell count of 15,600L. The AGACNP suspects

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pancreatitis. The clinical presentation of sudden, severe upper abdominal pain not related to food intake, along with the patient's position (lying on right side with hips and knees flexed), and presence of involuntary guarding suggest acute pancreatitis. The elevated white blood cell count indicates an inflammatory process. Dissecting aortic aneurysm (A) typically presents with abrupt, severe chest or back pain radiating to the abdomen, with signs of shock. Perforated peptic ulcer (C) presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain often related to food intake, with signs of peritonitis. Mallory-Weiss tear (D) presents with hematemesis after forceful or prolonged vomiting.

Question 4 of 5

Teratogenic causes of congenital abnormalities include

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because radiation and substances of abuse are known teratogenic causes of congenital abnormalities. Radiation exposure can lead to genetic mutations and developmental issues in the fetus. Substances of abuse like alcohol, tobacco, and illicit drugs can also negatively impact fetal development. A: Medical conditions and pesticides may have negative effects on pregnancy outcomes, but they are not typically classified as teratogenic causes of congenital abnormalities. B: Prescription drugs can be teratogenic in some cases, but not all prescription drugs have harmful effects on fetal development. Chromosomes are not typically considered teratogenic causes. D: Disordered genes can lead to congenital abnormalities, but they are not classified as teratogenic causes. Medical conditions are not universally teratogenic.

Question 5 of 5

Extra-peritoneal uterine rupture: a) Define extra-peritoneal uterine rupture

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A rupture of the uterine wall confined to the tissue. Extra-peritoneal uterine rupture refers to a rupture that does not breach the peritoneal cavity, keeping the damage confined to the uterine tissue only. This is distinct from intra-peritoneal rupture which involves the peritoneum (choice B) and complete rupture of all uterine layers (choice D). Choice A is incorrect as it does not specify the location of the tear, and it does not necessarily imply that there is no organ damage.

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