Midwifery Exam Questions

Questions 64

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Midwifery Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A neonate of a smear-negative mother just before birth receives BCG as usual.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. This is because BCG vaccination for newborns is recommended even if the mother is smear-negative for tuberculosis, as it helps protect the newborn from severe forms of TB. Smear status of the mother does not impact the need for BCG vaccination in the neonate. Choice B is incorrect as it falsely implies that BCG should not be given in this scenario. Choices C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any information.

Question 2 of 5

The AGACNP knows that treatment for this likely will include

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperextension casting. The AGACNP knows that this treatment is appropriate for a condition that requires immobilization and support while allowing controlled movement. Hyperextension casting provides stability and support while promoting healing. Observation (A) would not provide adequate treatment for a condition requiring immobilization. Jewett brace (C) is typically used for spinal fractures, not for conditions that require hyperextension casting. Surgical intervention (D) would be considered if conservative measures like casting have failed.

Question 3 of 5

T. O. is a 44-year-old female patient who presents for evaluation of sudden, severe upper abdominal pain. She is clear about the onset, which was profound and occurred approximately one hour ago. She denies that the onset had any relationship to food or eating, and she denies nausea or vomiting. On examination, she is lying on her right side with her hips and knees flexed to draw her knees to her chest. Vital signs are stable, but examination reveals involuntary guarding. The abdomen is painful and tympanic to percussion in all quadrants. CBC reveals a white blood cell count of 15,600L. The AGACNP suspects

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pancreatitis. The clinical presentation of sudden, severe upper abdominal pain not related to food intake, along with the patient's position (lying on right side with hips and knees flexed), and presence of involuntary guarding suggest acute pancreatitis. The elevated white blood cell count indicates an inflammatory process. Dissecting aortic aneurysm (A) typically presents with abrupt, severe chest or back pain radiating to the abdomen, with signs of shock. Perforated peptic ulcer (C) presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain often related to food intake, with signs of peritonitis. Mallory-Weiss tear (D) presents with hematemesis after forceful or prolonged vomiting.

Question 4 of 5

Ms. OReilly is a 69-year-old patient who is having a bowel resection for a malignant tumor of the right colon. She has several chronic medical conditions and takes numerous daily medications, including metoprolol 100 mg daily, warfarin 5 mg daily, vitamin E 200 units daily, and metformin 1000 mg bid. Which of the following regimens is the most appropriate approach to managing her medications preoperatively?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: 1. Metformin should be held if the morning blood sugar is < 200 mg/dL to reduce the risk of lactic acidosis postoperatively. 2. Warfarin should be held 5 days before surgery to prevent excessive bleeding during the procedure. 3. Beta blocker (metoprolol) can be continued on the day of surgery to prevent rebound hypertension. 4. Vitamin E can be continued as it does not have significant interactions or adverse effects in this scenario. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the need to hold metformin and warfarin appropriately. - Choice B is incorrect as it discontinues medications too early and does not address metformin management. - Choice C is incorrect as it only addresses warfarin and does not consider metformin or other medications. - Choice D is the most appropriate approach as it addresses the specific considerations for each medication based on their effects and interactions.

Question 5 of 5

In eclampsia, violent contraction and relaxation of the whole body occurs in

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clonic stage. In eclampsia, the clonic stage is characterized by violent contraction and relaxation of the whole body due to generalized seizures. During this stage, rhythmic jerking movements occur. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Coma stage - In this stage, the individual is unconscious and not experiencing violent body movements. C: Premonitory stage - This stage includes warning signs like headache and visual disturbances, but not the violent body movements seen in eclampsia. D: Tonic stage - This stage involves sustained muscle contractions without relaxation, unlike the alternating contraction and relaxation seen in the clonic stage of eclampsia.

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