ATI RN
Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
Signs of obstructed labor per vaginally include
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because signs of obstructed labor include a dry vagina due to prolonged pressure, oedema of the cervix due to prolonged contractions, and caput succedaneum which is swelling of the baby's scalp from prolonged pressure. Choice B is incorrect because plenty of amniotic fluid is not a sign of obstructed labor. A hot/dry vagina is not a typical sign of obstructed labor. Meconium-stained liquor can be a sign of fetal distress, but not specifically obstructed labor. Choice C is incorrect because meconium-stained liquor is a sign of fetal distress, not necessarily obstructed labor. A hot/dry vagina is not a typical sign of obstructed labor. Diluted urine is not a typical sign of obstructed labor. Choice D is incorrect because while caput succedaneum is a sign of obstructed labor, oedema of the cervix is more indicative of obstructed labor than plenty of amni
Question 2 of 5
A patient with chronic hepatic encephalopathy is being discharged home. Discharge teaching centers upon long-term management strategies to prevent ammonia accumulation. Teaching for this patient includes instruction about
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protein intake of 50 g daily. In hepatic encephalopathy, reducing protein intake is crucial to prevent ammonia accumulation. Protein breakdown in the body leads to ammonia production, which worsens encephalopathy symptoms. Limiting protein intake to 50g daily helps decrease ammonia formation. Lactulose (choice A) is used to reduce ammonia absorption in the gut. Spironolactone (choice B) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention in liver disease. Zolpidem (choice D) is a sedative and not related to managing ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect for long-term management of ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy.
Question 3 of 5
Clinical features of facial palsy are
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because reduced facial movement is a key clinical feature of facial palsy. This can lead to difficulty in making facial expressions, closing the eye on the affected side, and drooping of the mouth. Irritability may also occur due to discomfort or difficulty in communication. Choice A is incorrect because inability to feed and excessive cry are not typical features of facial palsy. Choice C is incorrect as excessively dry eyeball and feeding difficulties are not commonly associated with facial palsy. Choice D is incorrect as eyes being permanently open and no facial movement are not characteristic of facial palsy.
Question 4 of 5
What are the risks of a VBAC (vaginal birth after cesarean)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uterine rupture. This is the most significant risk associated with VBAC, where the scar from the previous cesarean section may tear during labor. This can lead to severe complications for both the mother and baby. Postpartum hemorrhage (B) and placenta previa (C) are potential risks in any pregnancy but are not specifically increased in VBAC. Therefore, the correct answer is A, as it directly relates to the unique risk of VBAC.
Question 5 of 5
Pubiotomy is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A surgical procedure in which the cartilage of the pubic symphysis is divided. Pubiotomy involves cutting the pubic symphysis cartilage to widen the pelvic outlet during difficult childbirth. This procedure helps facilitate labor by increasing the pelvic diameter. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe pubiotomy. Choice A refers to accessing the lower uterine segment, choice C involves ligating pubic bones for cancer, and choice D pertains to perineal tissue dissection during labor, which are unrelated to pubiotomy.
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