Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers

Questions 64

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

Complications of uterine rupture:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because uterine rupture can lead to severe complications such as hemorrhage from blood vessels tearing, uterine atony causing failure of the uterus to contract, infection due to exposure of internal tissues, and peritonitis from inflammation of the abdominal lining. Choices B and C are incorrect as they list complications that are not directly associated with uterine rupture. Preterm labor, cord prolapse, uterine prolapse, fetal distress, placental abruption are potential consequences of other obstetric complications but not specifically uterine rupture. Therefore, choice A is the most appropriate answer given the context of uterine rupture.

Question 2 of 5

Causes of Down syndrome are

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Down syndrome is primarily caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. This means there is an extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to the characteristic features of the syndrome. Mosaicism and translocation of chromosome 21 can also result in Down syndrome, albeit less frequently. Option A includes deletion, which is not a common cause of Down syndrome. Option B lists duplication, which is not a typical mechanism for Down syndrome. Option C includes deletion and mosaicism, but trisomy is the main cause of Down syndrome, making option D the most accurate choice.

Question 3 of 5

What are the risks of a VBAC (vaginal birth after cesarean)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uterine rupture. This is the most significant risk associated with VBAC, where the scar from the previous cesarean section may tear during labor. This can lead to severe complications for both the mother and baby. Postpartum hemorrhage (B) and placenta previa (C) are potential risks in any pregnancy but are not specifically increased in VBAC. Therefore, the correct answer is A, as it directly relates to the unique risk of VBAC.

Question 4 of 5

Hepatic encephalopathy is a clinical syndrome seen in patients with chronic liver disease its presentation may range from mild personality changes, to psychosis, to coma. The primary chemical mediators of hepatic encephalopathy include all of the following except

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia. Ammonia is a primary chemical mediator of hepatic encephalopathy. In patients with chronic liver disease, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is compromised, leading to its accumulation in the bloodstream and subsequent neurotoxic effects causing encephalopathy. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), false neurotransmitters, and serotonin are all implicated in the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy. GABA is involved in neurotransmission, false neurotransmitters are substances that disrupt normal neurotransmission, and serotonin levels are altered in hepatic encephalopathy.

Question 5 of 5

While participating in sports, it is not uncommon for people to be subjected to sudden rotational injuries that result in the abrupt rotation of the cerebral cortex around the more fixed midbrain structures. This can interrupt input and outflow from the reticular activating system and result in what clinical phenomenon?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epidural hematoma. 1. Sudden rotational injuries can cause tearing of the middle meningeal artery, leading to an epidural hematoma. 2. The hematoma can compress the brain, disrupting the reticular activating system, causing altered consciousness. 3. Uncal herniation (B) involves herniation of the uncus, not rotation-related. 4. Concussion (C) is a mild traumatic brain injury, not directly related to rotational injuries. 5. Contrecoup injury (D) is when the brain impacts the opposite side of the skull due to sudden deceleration, not rotation-induced.

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