ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Complete placenta praevia is also referred to as
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta praevia is classified into four types based on the degree of coverage of the cervix by the placenta. Complete placenta praevia, where the internal os is completely covered by the placenta, is referred to as Type 4. This is the correct answer as it accurately describes the specific condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the classification system for placenta praevia.
Question 2 of 5
In face presentation, obstructed labor is likely to result because
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In face presentation, the face is an ill-fitting presenting part, leading to obstructed labor. The face has larger diameters, making it difficult to pass through the birth canal. This differs from vertex delivery where the head can mold to fit. Caput succedaneum is swelling of the soft tissues on the baby's head and does not directly cause obstructed labor.
Question 3 of 5
TB in pregnancy predisposes a mother to premature labour due to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. TB in pregnancy can lead to premature labor due to the fever experienced. Fever increases the risk of premature labor by triggering uterine contractions. Poor maternal appetite (A) and severe anemia (B) may impact the mother's health but are not directly linked to premature labor. Adverse reactions of anti-TB drugs (C) could potentially affect the mother's health but are not a direct cause of premature labor.
Question 4 of 5
The baby dies immediately after birth due to the presence of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Truncus arteriosus. In this congenital heart defect, a single large blood vessel arises from the heart instead of the normal two separate vessels (aorta and pulmonary artery). This results in mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, leading to severe cyanosis and inadequate oxygen supply to the body. This condition is incompatible with life, causing immediate death after birth. A: Pulmonary stenosis and B: Aortic coarctation are also congenital heart defects but do not typically result in immediate death after birth. Pulmonary stenosis obstructs blood flow to the lungs, while aortic coarctation causes narrowing of the aorta. D: Ductus arteriosus is a normal fetal blood vessel that connects the pulmonary artery and the aorta but usually closes shortly after birth. Failure of closure can lead to health issues, but it is not typically a cause of immediate death after birth.
Question 5 of 5
K. T. presents for a routine wellness examination, and the review of systems is significant only for a markedly decreased capacity for intake and a vague sense of nausea after eating. K. T. denies any other symptoms the remainder of the GI review of systems is negative. His medical history is significant for complicated peptic ulcer disease that finally required resection for a perforated ulcer. The AGACNP advises the patient that
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. The patient's symptoms of decreased capacity for intake and nausea after eating suggest gastroparesis, a common complication post-ulcer surgery. 2. Given the history of complicated peptic ulcer disease and prior surgery, medication may be ineffective, necessitating potential reoperation. 3. The AGACNP advises that another surgery may be needed, indicating that medication alone may not suffice to address the issue. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Endoscopy is not necessary at this point as the symptoms are likely indicative of a functional issue rather than a structural problem. B: While gastroparesis can occur post-ulcer surgery, the patient's symptoms are more suggestive of gastroparesis rather than chronic gastroparesis as a known complication. D: The frequency of occurrence of symptoms after ulcer surgery is not relevant to the current management of the patient's symptoms.
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