Midwifery Exam Practice Questions

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if their previous delivery was via spontaneous vertex delivery. This indicates that the client has successfully given birth vaginally before, reducing the risk associated with a vaginal birth after cesarean section. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Cephalopelvic disproportion was the reason for the previous C/S, indicating potential difficulty in vaginal delivery. B: Confirmation of a multiple pregnancy does not impact the client's eligibility for a vaginal birth after cesarean section. C: Previous cesarean section does not necessarily mean the client is fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for patients with traumatic brain injury and a GCS of 3 to 8, regardless of the head CT findings. Intracranial pressure monitoring helps in the management of elevated intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening. Abnormal head CT findings may indicate the need for immediate intervention, but intracranial pressure monitoring is still recommended for all patients in this GCS range to guide treatment decisions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, age > 40 years old, and bradycardia are not factors that would exclude a patient from needing intracranial pressure monitoring in the presence of a GCS of 3 to 8.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production leading to sodium retention, potassium loss, and increased protein breakdown. Low sodium and potassium levels along with high BUN are commonly seen in patients with Cushing's syndrome. A: Low potassium and high glucose are possible findings, but high white blood cell count is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome. B: High sodium and polycythemia are not typical findings in Cushing's syndrome, and low BUN is not consistent with the protein breakdown seen in this condition. D: High sodium and high chloride levels can be seen, but high RBCs are not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because hypoplastic left heart syndrome involves underdevelopment of the left ventricle, aortic valve, and aortic arch. The left ventricle is typically small and unable to adequately pump blood to the body. The aortic valve is often malformed, leading to difficulties in blood flow from the heart to the body. Additionally, the aortic arch may be narrow or underdeveloped, further impacting blood circulation. Choice A is incorrect as it includes the pulmonary veins, which are not typically affected in hypoplastic left heart syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on the left atrium and pulmonary vessels, which are not the primary structures affected in this condition. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions the aorta arch, venacava, and right atrium, which are not primarily associated with hypoplastic left heart syndrome.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In myelodysplastic syndromes, splenectomy is indicated for sustained leukocyte elevation above 30,000 cells/�L to manage symptomatic splenomegaly and cytopenias. This is because an enlarged spleen can sequester and destroy blood cells, leading to low blood cell counts. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as splenectomy is not typically indicated for major hemolysis unresponsive to medical management, severe symptoms of massive splenomegaly, or portal hypertension in the context of myelodysplastic syndromes.