Midwifery Exam Practice Questions

Questions 64

ATI RN

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Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

When caring for a mother following an assisted vaginal delivery, it�s MOST important to remember that

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because additional nursing interventions are necessary to ensure an uncomplicated postpartum period. After an assisted vaginal delivery, the mother may experience increased pain, perineal trauma, and a higher risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Nursing interventions such as pain management, wound care, monitoring for signs of infection, and emotional support are crucial for the mother's recovery. A is incorrect because both vacuum extractors and forceps can cause trauma to the baby and mother's perineum, and the safety of one over the other depends on various factors. B is incorrect as the development of a cephalhematoma is not a normal expected outcome of assisted vaginal delivery and should be monitored and managed appropriately if it occurs. C is incorrect as the use of instruments during childbirth, while not as common as spontaneous vaginal deliveries, is not rare and can be necessary in certain situations to ensure the safety of the mother and baby.

Question 2 of 5

The recommended number of chest compressions for neonatal resuscitation is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 60 compressions coordinated with 30 breaths per minute. In neonatal resuscitation, the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio is 3:1. This means 3 compressions are given followed by 1 breath. With a target compression rate of 120 per minute, this translates to 60 compressions coordinated with 30 breaths per minute. Each compression should be at a depth of about one-third the anterior-posterior diameter of the chest. This ratio and rate are crucial for maintaining adequate circulation and oxygenation during neonatal resuscitation. Choice B: 3 compressions coordinated with 1 breath per minute is too slow and would not provide enough support for the neonate's circulation. Choice C: 1 compression coordinated with 3 breaths per minute would not provide sufficient compressions to maintain circulation. Choice D: 90 compressions coordinated with 30 breaths per minute would result in an incorrect compression-to-vent

Question 3 of 5

Prior to taking a patient for an emergency cesarean section, it is MOST important to assess that:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because establishing an intravenous line is essential for immediate access to administer fluids, medications, and blood products during the emergency cesarean section. This step ensures that the patient's vital signs can be supported, and any emergent interventions can be readily delivered. A: While informed consent is important, in an emergency situation, the priority is to ensure the patient's immediate medical needs are met. B: Inserting a Foley's catheter may be necessary during the procedure, but it is not the most critical assessment prior to the cesarean section. D: Shaving the perineal area is not a priority in an emergency situation and may be done during the preparation for surgery.

Question 4 of 5

Based upon an understanding of the normal relationship between gastrin levels and acid secretion, the AGACNP recognizes that which of the following combinations is almost diagnostic of gastrinoma?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypogastrinemia and acid hyposecretion. Gastrinoma is a tumor that secretes excessive gastrin, leading to hypergastrinemia and increased acid secretion. However, due to a negative feedback mechanism, chronic exposure to high gastrin levels can cause downregulation of gastrin receptors on parietal cells, leading to decreased acid secretion. Therefore, in gastrinoma, despite high gastrin levels, acid secretion may be reduced due to this negative feedback loop. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the expected relationship between gastrin levels and acid secretion in gastrinoma.

Question 5 of 5

Mr. Costigan is a 50-year-old male patient who recently had a screening colonoscopy because it was recommended by his primary care provider as a screening measure. He received a report that noted inflammatory polyps. He is concerned because one of his friends had polyps that turned into cancer. While advising Mr. Costigan, the AGACNP tells him that

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Family history of colon cancer is a significant risk factor for developing colon cancer. Step 2: By discussing with his parents, Mr. Costigan can determine if there is a family history of colon cancer. Step 3: Knowing this information can help assess his own risk and guide appropriate screening and preventive measures. Step 4: The primary danger for Mr. Costigan lies in potential genetic predisposition rather than the presence of inflammatory polyps. Step 5: Therefore, discussing with family members about any history of colon cancer is crucial for his overall risk assessment and management. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as the frequency of colonoscopy should be individualized based on the patient's risk factors. - Choice C is incorrect as all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, especially inflammatory polyps. - Choice D is incorrect as consulting an oncologist at this stage is premature without first assessing family history.

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