medical microbiology test bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the presence of calcium dipicolinate in bacterial spores helps protect their DNA from damage under harsh conditions. Calcium dipicolinate acts as a stabilizer, preserving the spore structure. Choice A is incorrect as bacterial spores have a tough protein coat, not a lipid-rich membrane. Choice C is incorrect as bacterial spores have very low metabolic activity. Choice D is incorrect as bacterial spores have low water content to prevent damage during harsh conditions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Metronidazole is a synthetic antiprotozoal drug commonly used for wound infection prevention. 2. It is highly effective against Helicobacter pylori, a bacterium that causes stomach ulcers. 3. Metronidazole works by disrupting DNA structure in bacteria, leading to their death. 4. Chingamin (Chloroquine) is an antimalarial drug, not effective against Helicobacter pylori. 5. Doxycycline hydrochloride is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not specifically for H. pylori. 6. Aciclovir is an antiviral drug used for herpes infections, not effective against H. pylori. Summary: Metronidazole is the correct answer as it is specifically effective against H. pylori and commonly used for wound infection prevention. Other choices are incorrect as they target different types of infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Bacillus cereus is associated with food intoxication due to its ability to produce toxins that cause gastrointestinal symptoms. B. subtilis is not known to cause food intoxication. B. anthracis causes anthrax, not food intoxication. Option D is incorrect as not all Bacillus species cause food intoxication.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because antigenic shift is a major change in the influenza virus where genetic material from different influenza viruses mix to create a new subtype. This is a large-scale change that results in a novel virus with a different antigenic composition. Option A and B are incorrect because antigenic shift does involve the exchange of genetic information between animal and human influenza A viruses, and it does occur when animal or avian influenza viruses of type A directly pass into the human population. Option C is incorrect because antigenic shift is not related to the recirculation of a previously circulating influenza strain.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chlamydia trachomatis. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2, and L3. These serovars infect the lymphatic system leading to swelling and inflammation. Choice A, Chlamydia pneumoniae, is associated with respiratory infections, not LGV. Choice B, Chlamydia psittaci, causes psittacosis in birds and humans. Choice C, Mycoplasma genitalium, is a separate STI but is not the causative agent for LGV. The key to the correct answer is understanding the specific pathogen responsible for LGV based on its clinical presentation and mode of transmission.