Medical Microbiology Test Bank

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Erysipeloid. Erysipeloid is a bacterial infection caused by Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae commonly found in animals like cattle. The patient's occupation as a cattle-ranch worker puts them at risk for this infection. Symptoms such as high body temperature, severe headache, carbuncle on the forearm with edema, and regional lymphadenitis are typical of erysipeloid. Anthrax (A) is more associated with skin lesions and severe systemic symptoms. Carcinoma of skin (B) presents differently with slow-growing skin lesions. Erysipelas (C) is a different bacterial infection characterized by red, swollen patches on the skin.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium produces the botulinum toxin, which causes botulism by blocking nerve functions. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not botulism. Staphylococcus aureus produces toxins that cause food poisoning, not botulism. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, not botulism. Therefore, the correct choice is Clostridium botulinum because it is the specific bacterium responsible for producing the toxin that leads to botulism.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This bacterium is known to cause gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted infection. Neisseria gonorrhoeae specifically infects the mucous membranes of the reproductive tract in both men and women. It is transmitted through sexual contact. Explanation of other choices: A: Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterium that causes chlamydia, not gonorrhea. C: Mycoplasma genitalium is associated with non-gonococcal urethritis, not gonorrhea. D: Treponema pallidum is the bacterium that causes syphilis, not gonorrhea. Therefore, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the correct answer based on its direct association with causing gonorrhea.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluconazole. Rationale: 1. Candidiasis is a fungal infection, so an antimycotic agent is needed. 2. β-lactam antibiotics like ampicillin can lead to fungal overgrowth, necessitating an antimycotic. 3. Fluconazole is an antifungal agent effective against Candida species. 4. Streptomycin is an antibiotic, not an antifungal. 5. Phthalylsulfathiazole is an antibacterial sulfonamide, not an antifungal. 6. Ampicillin is an antibiotic, not an antifungal.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of pneumonia and is known to appear as Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule. The presence of a capsule is a key characteristic of S. pneumoniae. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is a Gram-positive cocci but typically does not have a capsule. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus, not a Gram-positive cocci. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative rod, not a Gram-positive cocci. Therefore, based on the staining pattern and the presence of a capsule, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent in this case.