Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions

Questions 75

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Arthur, a 66-year old client for pneumonia has a temperature ranging from 39� to 40� C with periods of diaphoresis. Which of the following interventions by Nurse Carlos would be a priority?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen therapy. This is the priority intervention because a high temperature and diaphoresis indicate potential respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy can help improve oxygenation and support respiratory function. Providing frequent linen changes (B) is important for hygiene but not the priority. Fluid intake (C) is essential but not as urgent as addressing respiratory distress. Maintaining complete bed rest (D) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation takes precedence in this case.

Question 2 of 5

A patient asks the nurse what is CYSTOCLYSIS? The best explanation would be:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: B is correct because cystoclisis is the process of maintaining patency of a foley catheter by irrigating it with a sterile solution. This prevents blockages and promotes proper drainage. A, C, and D are incorrect because cystoclisis is not related to increasing bladder atony, removing blood clots, or altering urine specific gravity.

Question 3 of 5

How many drops per minute should be delivered?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 17 drops per minute. To calculate the correct drip rate, you need to use the formula: (Volume to be infused in mL / Time in minutes) x Drop factor. In this case, if the volume to be infused is 100 mL and the time is 60 minutes with a drop factor of 20, the calculation would be: (100 / 60) x 20 = 33.33 drops per minute. Since we cannot deliver fractional drops, the closest whole number is 17 drops per minute. This ensures the correct delivery rate for the medication. Choice A (6 drops per minute) is incorrect as it would be too slow and may not deliver the medication effectively. Choice C (50 drops per minute) and Choice D (100 drops per minute) are incorrect as they would both deliver the medication too quickly, potentially causing harm to the patient. The correct answer, 17 drops per minute, ensures a safe and accurate delivery rate

Question 4 of 5

The nurse would monitor the client for which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trousseau's sign. This involves carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure, indicating hypocalcemia. The nurse should monitor for this sign in clients at risk for low calcium levels. Hypoglycemia and hypokalemia have specific signs and symptoms not related to Trousseau's sign. Respiratory changes are nonspecific and may not be directly related to monitoring for low calcium levels.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is reviewing a patient�s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient�s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. The nurse needs to revise the collaborative problem part of the diagnostic statement because impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture is a nursing diagnosis, not a collaborative problem. A collaborative problem involves potential complications that require both nursing and medical interventions. In this case, impaired physical mobility is a nursing diagnosis that requires nursing interventions to address the patient's inability to ambulate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are all relevant components of a nursing diagnostic statement: A - Etiology identifies the cause of the nursing diagnosis, B - Nursing diagnosis states the health problem, and D - Defining characteristic provides evidence supporting the nursing diagnosis.

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