ATI RN
Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
How many drops per minute should be delivered?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 17 drops per minute. To calculate the correct drip rate, you need to use the formula: (Volume to be infused in mL / Time in minutes) x Drop factor. In this case, if the volume to be infused is 100 mL and the time is 60 minutes with a drop factor of 20, the calculation would be: (100 / 60) x 20 = 33.33 drops per minute. Since we cannot deliver fractional drops, the closest whole number is 17 drops per minute. This ensures the correct delivery rate for the medication. Choice A (6 drops per minute) is incorrect as it would be too slow and may not deliver the medication effectively. Choice C (50 drops per minute) and Choice D (100 drops per minute) are incorrect as they would both deliver the medication too quickly, potentially causing harm to the patient. The correct answer, 17 drops per minute, ensures a safe and accurate delivery rate
Question 2 of 5
The majority of lumbar disc herniations occur at the level of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: L4-L5. This is because the L4-L5 intervertebral disc segment experiences the highest amount of mechanical stress and mobility in the lumbar spine, making it more prone to herniation. Additionally, nerve roots at this level innervate the lower extremities, making it a common site for symptoms such as sciatica. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because herniations at those levels are less common due to lower mechanical stress and mobility compared to L4-L5.
Question 3 of 5
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient expressing fear of going home and being alone indicates apprehension about discharge. This is supported by stable vital signs and nearly healed incision, suggesting physical recovery. Choice A is incorrect as fear of being alone does not necessarily mean the patient can perform dressing changes independently. Choice B is incorrect as resuming medications is not related to the patient's fear of being alone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest the surgery was unsuccessful based on the information provided.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is reviewing a patient�s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient�s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. The nurse needs to revise the collaborative problem part of the diagnostic statement because impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture is a nursing diagnosis, not a collaborative problem. A collaborative problem involves potential complications that require both nursing and medical interventions. In this case, impaired physical mobility is a nursing diagnosis that requires nursing interventions to address the patient's inability to ambulate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are all relevant components of a nursing diagnostic statement: A - Etiology identifies the cause of the nursing diagnosis, B - Nursing diagnosis states the health problem, and D - Defining characteristic provides evidence supporting the nursing diagnosis.
Question 5 of 5
A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. Thymectomy involves the surgical removal of the thymus gland, which is often abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis. The thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and can contribute to the autoimmune response seen in myasthenia gravis. By removing the thymus gland, the autoimmune response may be reduced, leading to substantial remission of symptoms. Choice A, Esophagostomy, involves creating a surgical opening into the esophagus and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis. Choice C, Myomectomy, is the surgical removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, Spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a standard treatment for myasthenia gravis.
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