Midwifery Test Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delay in second stage of labor. Forceps delivery is indicated when there is a delay in the second stage of labor to expedite delivery and prevent maternal and fetal complications. This could be due to factors such as maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, or ineffective pushing. Inadequate pelvis size (A) may necessitate a C-section, unsuccessful vacuum extraction (C) may require alternative interventions, and fetal distress in the first stage of labor (D) may not necessarily indicate the need for forceps delivery immediately.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unstable lie. After 36 weeks of gestation, the fetal lie should typically be consistent. An unstable lie refers to a situation where the fetal lie keeps changing position, indicating a potential complication. This can lead to difficulties during labor and delivery. Summary: B: Compound lie - Refers to a situation where the fetus is in an abnormal position, such as breech or transverse, alongside another part of the body presenting first. C: Multiple lie - Not a recognized medical term. D: Transverse lie - Refers to a situation where the fetus is positioned horizontally across the uterus, which can complicate delivery.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Improve fetal oxygenation. Oxygen at 4 liters/minute is given to increase oxygen levels which can help improve oxygenation to the fetus during a cord prolapse scenario. This can be crucial in preventing fetal distress and hypoxia. Explanation for Incorrect Choices: A: Relieve maternal distress - Oxygen is primarily given in this scenario to benefit the fetus, not to relieve maternal distress. B: Promote her relative rest - Oxygen is not administered to promote rest, but to address the immediate concern of fetal oxygenation. D: Achieve the effect of tocolysis - Oxygen does not have a role in tocolysis, which is the inhibition of uterine contractions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because inflammatory polyps are indeed considered precancerous, meaning they have the potential to develop into cancer over time. By having regular colonoscopies every 3 to 5 years, any new polyps can be detected early and removed before they have a chance to become malignant. This approach helps in preventing the progression of polyps to cancerous lesions, thus reducing the risk of developing colon cancer. Choice B is incorrect because while family history is a risk factor for colon cancer, the presence of inflammatory polyps in Mr. Costigan should not be overlooked or solely attributed to family history. Choice C is incorrect because all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, including inflammatory polyps. Ignoring their presence can lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect because at this stage, the primary focus should be on surveillance and prevention through regular colonoscopies, rather than jumping into discussions about aggressive treatment options.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for correct answer (A): At 36 weeks, the baby has enough room to move, reducing risks of complications during external cephalic version. Earlier intervention also allows for possible repeat attempts if needed. This timing aligns with guidelines for optimal success rates. Summary of other choices: B: 38 weeks may be too late as the baby may have less space to turn. C: 42 weeks is post-term and poses risks for both the baby and the mother. D: 40 weeks is close to full term and may not allow for adequate time for successful version.