ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Clinical diagnosis of polyhydramnios is based on an amount of amniotic fluid exceeding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (3000 ml) because polyhydramnios is defined as an excessive amount of amniotic fluid, typically exceeding 2000-2500 ml. A level of 3000 ml is commonly used as a cutoff point for clinical diagnosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they fall below the threshold typically considered diagnostic for polyhydramnios. Answer A (1500 ml) is too low, while choices C (1900 ml) and D (2500 ml) are below or at the lower end of the range typically associated with polyhydramnios. Therefore, the most appropriate threshold for diagnosing polyhydramnios is when the amount of amniotic fluid exceeds 3000 ml.
Question 2 of 5
Classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding occurs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding occurs within the neonatal stage because newborns have low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. This deficiency typically manifests between 1-7 days after birth. Bleeding within the first 24 hours (choice A) is unlikely as it is too early for vitamin K deficiency to cause symptoms. Bleeding within infancy (choice C) is incorrect as it specifically refers to the neonatal stage. Bleeding within the first week of birth (choice D) is a close distractor, but the critical period for classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding is within the neonatal stage, which is slightly more specific than the first week of birth.
Question 3 of 5
What are the risks of cesarean sections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the choices (A, B, and C) are risks associated with cesarean sections. Infection can occur at the incision site, blood loss is a common concern during surgery, and cesarean sections typically have a longer recovery time compared to vaginal delivery. Therefore, all of these risks are potential complications of undergoing a cesarean section. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect individually because they only represent a subset of the risks associated with cesarean sections, while choice D encompasses all potential risks.
Question 4 of 5
The baby dies immediately after birth due to the presence of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Truncus arteriosus. In this condition, there is a single large vessel arising from the heart that gives rise to the systemic, pulmonary, and coronary arteries. This results in mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, leading to severe cyanosis and inadequate oxygenation of the body, causing immediate death after birth. A: Pulmonary stenosis and B: Aortic coarctation typically do not cause immediate death after birth. D: Ductus arteriosus is a normal fetal structure that closes shortly after birth and its presence would not directly cause immediate death.
Question 5 of 5
R. R. is a 71-year-old female who presents with left lower quadrant pain that started out as cramping but has become more constant over the last day. She reports constipation over the last few days but admits that for as long as she can remember she has had variable bowel habits. Her vital signs are normal, but physical examination reveals some tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Which diagnostic test is most likely to support the leading differential diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: CBC with WBC differential. This test can help rule out infectious causes of left lower quadrant pain, such as diverticulitis or colitis, by assessing for elevated white blood cell count and left shift. A CT scan (A) with contrast may be indicated if the patient's condition worsens or if initial tests are inconclusive. Colonoscopy (C) is more appropriate for evaluating chronic or intermittent abdominal pain, not acute symptoms. Barium enema (D) is an outdated test and not commonly used for diagnosing acute abdominal pain.
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