ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
In the majority of cases, the first clinical manifestation of physiologic stress ulcer is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Physiologic stress ulcers are often associated with systemic stress response, leading to an increase in body temperature. Fever is an early sign of stress-related ulcers before other symptoms like epigastric pain or hemorrhage manifest. Change in mental status is more indicative of neurological issues rather than stress ulcers. Epigastric pain typically occurs after the ulcer has progressed, and hemorrhage is a severe complication of untreated stress ulcers.
Question 2 of 5
A patient who has been in the intensive care unit for 17 days develops hyponatremic hyperosmolality. The patient weighs 132 lb (59.9 kg), is intubated, and is receiving mechanical ventilation. The serum osmolality is 320 mOsmL kg H2O. Clinical signs include tachycardia and hypotension. The adult-gerontology acute care nurse practitioners initial treatment is to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: reduce serum sodium concentration by infusing a 0.45% sodium chloride solution. In hyponatremic hyperosmolality, the primary goal is to correct the low serum sodium levels. A 0.45% sodium chloride solution is hypotonic, which helps to slowly correct the serum sodium concentration without causing rapid shifts in osmolality. Infusing a hypotonic solution will gradually increase the serum sodium levels, addressing the underlying issue. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the low serum sodium levels, which is essential in treating hyponatremic hyperosmolality. Infusing a 5% dextrose in 0.2% sodium chloride solution (Choice A) or a 5% dextrose in water solution (Choice D) would not correct the low sodium levels. Replenishing volume with a 0.9% sodium chloride solution (Choice C) would not directly
Question 3 of 5
The appropriate time to perform external cephalic version in a breech presentation is at
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer (A): At 36 weeks, the baby has enough room to move, reducing risks of complications during external cephalic version. Earlier intervention also allows for possible repeat attempts if needed. This timing aligns with guidelines for optimal success rates. Summary of other choices: B: 38 weeks may be too late as the baby may have less space to turn. C: 42 weeks is post-term and poses risks for both the baby and the mother. D: 40 weeks is close to full term and may not allow for adequate time for successful version.
Question 4 of 5
Clinical features of intracranial injury include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Irritability, hypoxia, and paralysis. Intracranial injury can lead to neurological symptoms such as irritability due to brain inflammation, hypoxia from impaired oxygen delivery, and paralysis from damage to the brain or spinal cord. Limpness, bruises, and hypothermia (Option A) are not specific to intracranial injury. Hypothermia, limpness, and irritability (Option C) do not encompass the key neurological symptoms associated with intracranial injury. Hypocalcemia, paralysis, and hypoxia (Option D) include incorrect factors not typically seen in intracranial injury.
Question 5 of 5
When examining a patient with abdominal pain, the AGACNP knows that tenderness to percussion is analogous to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rebound tenderness. Tenderness to percussion is similar to rebound tenderness because both involve assessing pain upon release of pressure. Rebound tenderness specifically evaluates pain when the examiner quickly removes pressure, indicating peritoneal inflammation. Tympany (A) refers to a drum-like sound upon percussion, not pain. Guarding (B) is involuntary muscle contractions in response to palpation, not percussion. Somatic pain (D) is localized pain arising from skin, muscles, or bones, not related to percussion tenderness.
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