Midwifery Test Questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because inflammatory polyps are indeed considered precancerous, meaning they have the potential to develop into cancer over time. By having regular colonoscopies every 3 to 5 years, any new polyps can be detected early and removed before they have a chance to become malignant. This approach helps in preventing the progression of polyps to cancerous lesions, thus reducing the risk of developing colon cancer. Choice B is incorrect because while family history is a risk factor for colon cancer, the presence of inflammatory polyps in Mr. Costigan should not be overlooked or solely attributed to family history. Choice C is incorrect because all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, including inflammatory polyps. Ignoring their presence can lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect because at this stage, the primary focus should be on surveillance and prevention through regular colonoscopies, rather than jumping into discussions about aggressive treatment options.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, major depression. Puerperal psychosis is a severe mental health condition that occurs in the postpartum period, characterized by symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Major depression is a key clinical feature, often accompanied by mood disturbances and severe emotional distress. Rationale: - A: Episodic insomnia is a common symptom in various mental health disorders but not specific to puerperal psychosis. - B: Neglect of hygiene may occur in severe cases but is not the main clinical feature of puerperal psychosis. - D: Mild headache is not a characteristic symptom of puerperal psychosis, which is primarily marked by severe psychiatric symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: CBC with WBC differential. This test can help rule out infectious causes of left lower quadrant pain, such as diverticulitis or colitis, by assessing for elevated white blood cell count and left shift. A CT scan (A) with contrast may be indicated if the patient's condition worsens or if initial tests are inconclusive. Colonoscopy (C) is more appropriate for evaluating chronic or intermittent abdominal pain, not acute symptoms. Barium enema (D) is an outdated test and not commonly used for diagnosing acute abdominal pain.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. High-risk pregnancies are associated with various complications, including preterm birth, gestational diabetes, and preeclampsia. Preterm birth can lead to developmental issues for the baby. Gestational diabetes affects the mother's and baby's health. Preeclampsia can result in high blood pressure and organ damage. Choosing D as the correct answer encompasses all these complications, highlighting the comprehensive nature of risks in high-risk pregnancies. Choices A, B, and C alone do not cover all the potential complications, making them individually incorrect.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rebound tenderness. Tenderness to percussion is similar to rebound tenderness because both involve assessing pain upon release of pressure. Rebound tenderness specifically evaluates pain when the examiner quickly removes pressure, indicating peritoneal inflammation. Tympany (A) refers to a drum-like sound upon percussion, not pain. Guarding (B) is involuntary muscle contractions in response to palpation, not percussion. Somatic pain (D) is localized pain arising from skin, muscles, or bones, not related to percussion tenderness.