Midwifery Exam Practice Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct: 1. The ACCF/AHA recommends cardiac consultation before an operation for patients on antiplatelet therapy to assess the risk of bleeding versus thrombotic events. 2. Cardiac consultation helps determine the necessity of continuing, modifying, or stopping antiplatelet therapy. 3. This individualized approach ensures optimal perioperative management based on the patient's cardiovascular risk profile. 4. Choice A is incorrect as stopping antiplatelet therapy for 10 days can increase the risk of thrombotic events. 5. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the decision-making process without considering the patient's specific risks. 6. Choice D is incorrect because initiating antiplatelet therapy in all high-risk cardiac procedures may not be necessary for every patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Turtle sign. This occurs when the fetal head retracts against the perineum during delivery, resembling a turtle retracting into its shell. This indicates fetal shoulder dystocia, a serious complication. Gaskin sign (A) refers to the position of the mother during labor. Klumpke sign (C) is related to brachial plexus injuries during delivery. Chignon sign (D) is not a recognized term in obstetrics.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A needle biopsy is appropriate for definitive diagnosis of hepatic hemangiomas, ruling out other liver lesions. It helps determine if they are benign or malignant. This will guide further management decisions. Summary: B: Annual ultrasound is unnecessary for benign hemangiomas. C: Surgery is not indicated for asymptomatic hepatic hemangiomas. D: Documenting the finding is important but not the appropriate next step in management.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Low ACTH and low cortisol. In a patient with an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome, the tumor itself produces excess cortisol independently of ACTH regulation. Therefore, ACTH levels are low due to negative feedback from high cortisol levels. As a result, cortisol levels are high, while ACTH levels are low. Explanation for other choices: B: Low ACTH and high cortisol - This suggests primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease), not Cushing's syndrome. C: High ACTH and low cortisol - This suggests secondary adrenal insufficiency, not Cushing's syndrome. D: High ACTH and high cortisol - This is contradictory and not physiologically possible in the context of an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Keep client well hydrated. Encouraging plenty of fluids helps prevent dehydration, maintain adequate urine output, and promote flushing of the urinary tract to prevent infections, all crucial for postnatal clients with urinary tract trauma. Proper hydration also supports overall health and aids in the healing process. B: Maintain proper fluid balance - While important, the main aim is to keep the client well hydrated to support healing. C: Facilitate proper healing - Proper hydration does facilitate healing, but the primary aim is to keep the client well hydrated. D: Control growth of organisms - While hydration can help in preventing infections, the main aim is to keep the client well hydrated.