Midwifery Exam Practice Questions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. The first clinical manifestation of physiologic stress ulcer is often a fever due to the body's response to stress. This is because stress can trigger an inflammatory response, leading to an increase in body temperature. Epigastric pain (choice A) is more commonly associated with peptic ulcers. Change in mental status (choice B) is not a typical early symptom of physiologic stress ulcer. Hemorrhage (choice D) is a severe complication that can occur later in the course of the disease, but it is not typically the first clinical manifestation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): A trial of scar is indicated when a woman has had no more than two previous caesarean sections. This is because the risk of uterine rupture increases with each subsequent caesarean section due to scar tissue weakening. Limiting the number of previous scars reduces this risk. Therefore, option C is correct. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Estimated fetal weight is not a determining factor for a trial of scar. B: Availability of a level one hospital nearby is important for emergency situations but not a criteria for trial of scar. D: Adequate pelvis with true conjugate 10.5cm is important for vaginal delivery but not a specific requirement for a trial of scar.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: By altering immune development. The maternal microbiome plays a crucial role in shaping the fetal immune system during pregnancy. Microbes in the mother's body can influence the development of the fetus's immune system through various mechanisms, such as immune cells crossing the placenta. This interaction helps the fetus develop tolerance to maternal antigens. Choice A (By increasing fetal weight) is incorrect because the maternal microbiome's influence is not primarily related to weight gain. Choice C (By reducing placental oxygen levels) is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the immune system development. Choice D (By enhancing amniotic fluid) is incorrect as the main influence is on the immune system rather than amniotic fluid enhancement.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Local anesthesia, cleansing, and suture repair. 1. Local anesthesia is needed to numb the area before suturing. 2. Cleansing is necessary to prevent infection and remove debris. 3. Suture repair is required for a jagged laceration to promote proper wound healing and minimize scarring. Other choices are incorrect: A: Antibiotic therapy is not indicated for clean, non-infected wounds like this laceration. B: Wound exploration for foreign bodies is not necessary in this case as the mechanism of injury is known and there is no indication of foreign bodies. D: Tetanus prophylaxis is important but not directly related to the immediate management of the laceration.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Family history of colon cancer is a significant risk factor for developing colon cancer. Step 2: By discussing with his parents, Mr. Costigan can determine if there is a family history of colon cancer. Step 3: Knowing this information can help assess his own risk and guide appropriate screening and preventive measures. Step 4: The primary danger for Mr. Costigan lies in potential genetic predisposition rather than the presence of inflammatory polyps. Step 5: Therefore, discussing with family members about any history of colon cancer is crucial for his overall risk assessment and management. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as the frequency of colonoscopy should be individualized based on the patient's risk factors. - Choice C is incorrect as all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, especially inflammatory polyps. - Choice D is incorrect as consulting an oncologist at this stage is premature without first assessing family history.