ATI Pathophysiology

Questions 43

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Pathophysiology Questions

Question 1 of 5

A toddler is displaying signs/symptoms of weakness and muscle atrophy. The pediatric neurologist suspects it may be a lower motor neuron disease called spinal muscular atrophy (SMA). The client's family asks how he got this. The nurse will respond:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is an inherited disorder, often autosomal recessive, that affects lower motor neurons.

Question 2 of 5

A child has been taking mebendazole for the past 3 weeks after being diagnosed with roundworm. The nurse will determine the efficacy of the child's treatment by referencing what diagnostic test?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Progestin-only contraceptives are preferred in women who are at increased risk of thromboembolic events, such as those with a history of blood clots.

Question 3 of 5

A 45-year-old diabetic male is experiencing erectile dysfunction. If his erectile dysfunction is caused by the nervous system, then the nurse can educate the client that the venous blood supply to the penis is controlled by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Erectile function is primarily controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system, which facilitates the dilation of blood vessels in the penis. The parasympathetic nerves are responsible for vasodilation in the penis, allowing blood to enter and creating an erection. Sympathetic nerves, on the other hand, are responsible for ejaculation by causing contraction of the muscles around the vas deferens. Somatic nerves are involved in sensation and movement, not specifically in controlling blood supply to the penis. Spinal reflexes can play a role in the erectile process, but they are not directly responsible for controlling the venous blood supply.

Question 4 of 5

A male patient with erectile dysfunction has asked for a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). Before giving this medication, the nurse should assess for which of the following conditions?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Sildenafil should not be used by patients taking nitrates, as the combination can lead to severe hypotension.

Question 5 of 5

A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Progestin-only contraceptives are less likely to cause hypertension compared to combined oral contraceptives and may be preferred in women with cardiovascular risk factors.

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