microbiology chapter 1 test bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shigella dysenteriae. It is the likely causative agent because it is a non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rod commonly associated with severe diarrhea. Shigella dysenteriae specifically causes bacillary dysentery. Other choices are incorrect because: B: Escherichia coli is a lactose-fermenting bacterium commonly found in the gut and not typically associated with severe diarrhea. C: Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not severe diarrhea. D: Proteus mirabilis is a urease-positive bacterium associated with urinary tract infections, not severe diarrhea.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Granulomatosis. The appearance of a 10 mm papule 48 hours after the Mantoux test indicates a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction, which is characteristic of granulomatosis. This type of reaction involves activation of macrophages and T cells, leading to the formation of granulomas. Granulomas are organized collections of immune cells that wall off the antigen, in this case, the tuberculin antigen. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Cellular cytotoxicity involves the destruction of target cells by immune cells such as cytotoxic T cells or natural killer cells. This mechanism is not associated with the delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction seen in granulomatosis. B: Anaphylaxis is a rapid and severe allergic reaction involving IgE-mediated release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. This is not the mechanism underlying the delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction in the Mantoux test. C: Antibody-dependent cytotoxic

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani. The presence of Gram-positive rods with terminal spores resembling drumsticks indicates Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus. This bacterium forms spores at one end, giving it a drumstick appearance under the microscope. Clostridium perfringens (B) and Clostridium botulinum (D) do not have terminal spores. Bacillus anthracis (C) forms spores but typically appears as a square-ended or bamboo stick shape. Therefore, based on the microscopy findings, Clostridium tetani is the most likely microorganism responsible for the wound infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani. Clostridium tetani is responsible for causing tetanus by producing a neurotoxin called tetanospasmin. This neurotoxin blocks inhibitory signals in the central nervous system, leading to muscle spasms and stiffness characteristic of tetanus. Clostridium perfringens (B) causes gas gangrene, Streptococcus pyogenes (C) causes strep throat, and Escherichia coli (D) can cause gastrointestinal infections but not tetanus. Therefore, based on the specific pathogen and its mechanism of action, Clostridium tetani is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Typhoid fever, Brucellosis. Both Typhoid fever and Brucellosis are bacterial infections that can lead to bacteremia, the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream. In Typhoid fever, the causative agent Salmonella typhi can enter the bloodstream, causing bacteremia. Similarly, Brucellosis, caused by Brucella species, can also result in bacteremia. Choice A is incorrect because bacteremia is not typically observed in Diphtheria. Choice C, Cholera, is caused by a toxin-producing bacterium and does not usually lead to bacteremia. Choice D, Dysentery, is a condition characterized by bloody diarrhea and is primarily caused by parasites or bacteria that typically do not lead to bacteremia.