ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
A pregnant woman presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation. On examination, the cervix is found to be closed. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding during pregnancy. In the scenario described, the painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation with a closed cervix is classic for placenta previa. This condition is more common in the third trimester and can be diagnosed through ultrasound. It is important to manage placenta previa carefully to prevent complications such as severe bleeding, preterm birth, and maternal/fetal distress.
Question 2 of 5
A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax. The patient reports a history of chickenpox during childhood. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation of a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax, specifically in a patient with a history of chickenpox, is most suggestive of herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles. Herpes zoster is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus responsible for chickenpox. After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the nerve cells and can reactivate years later to cause shingles. The rash in herpes zoster typically progresses through different stages, including red patches leading to fluid-filled blisters. The characteristic rash typically appears unilaterally and is usually preceded by pain, burning, or tingling in the affected area. Unlike herpes simplex virus infection, which can cause similar lesions but is not typically localized to a specific dermatome, herpes zoster presents as a distinct unilateral cluster of vesicles along
Question 3 of 5
A woman in active labor is diagnosed with uterine rupture. What is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing action for a woman diagnosed with uterine rupture during labor is to prepare for immediate cesarean section. Uterine rupture is a serious obstetric emergency that can lead to severe maternal and fetal complications, including hemorrhage, fetal distress, and injury to both mother and baby. A cesarean section is necessary to deliver the baby promptly and address any potential complications, such as controlling bleeding and ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Time is critical in these situations, and prompt surgical intervention is essential to optimize outcomes. Administering intravenous oxytocin or assisting the mother into a hands-and-knees position would not address the immediate risks associated with uterine rupture. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is only necessary if the mother's condition deteriorates to the point of cardiac or respiratory arrest, which may occur as a result of significant hemorrhage or other complications associated with uterine
Question 4 of 5
A pregnant woman presents with severe lower abdominal pain, fever, and vaginal discharge. On examination, cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness are noted, along with bilateral adnexal masses. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The constellation of severe lower abdominal pain, fever, and vaginal discharge in a pregnant woman raises suspicion for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness are classic physical exam findings for PID. The presence of bilateral adnexal masses further supports the diagnosis, as PID can lead to the formation of tubo-ovarian abscesses. Ectopic pregnancy may present with similar symptoms but is less likely in this case as bilateral adnexal masses suggest a more diffuse inflammatory process. Placenta previa would typically present with painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, which is not consistent with the symptoms described. Ovarian torsion would present with sudden severe unilateral lower abdominal pain and is less likely to involve both ovaries simultaneously.
Question 5 of 5
A patient presents with bone pain, fatigue, and frequent infections. Laboratory tests reveal pancytopenia, hypocellular bone marrow, and absence of reticulocytes. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aplastic anemia is a condition characterized by a reduction in the number of all three blood cell types: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. The patient's presentation of bone pain, fatigue, frequent infections, pancytopenia (decreased counts of all blood cell types), hypocellular bone marrow (reduced cellularity in the bone marrow), and absence of reticulocytes is indicative of aplastic anemia.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access