Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers

Questions 164

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which instruction should the nurse include in the demonstration of MDI use?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with a spacer for a patient with COPD is to inhale slowly and deeply while pressing the canister. This technique helps ensure that the medication reaches the lungs effectively. Inhaling slowly and deeply allows the medication to be properly delivered to the airways, maximizing its effectiveness in treating the symptoms of COPD. This instruction helps the patient coordinate pressing the canister with their inhalation, which is crucial for proper medication delivery in COPD management.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse suspects that a client has multiple myeloma based on the client's major presenting symptom and the analysis of laboratory results. What classic manifestation for multiple myeloma does the nurse assess for?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Bone pain in the back of the ribs is a classic manifestation of multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that primarily affects plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to weakened bones and bone pain. Patients with multiple myeloma often experience bone pain in areas such as the ribs, spine, and pelvis. The bone pain is typically persistent and worsens with movement or pressure. Additionally, other common symptoms of multiple myeloma include anemia, kidney damage, recurrent infections, and elevated calcium levels in the blood.

Question 3 of 5

A patient with terminal cancer experiences dyspnea and anxiety. Which intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When a patient with terminal cancer experiences dyspnea (difficulty breathing) and anxiety, opioid medications are often prioritized by palliative care providers for symptom management. Opioids are effective in relieving dyspnea by acting as respiratory depressants and reducing the feeling of air hunger. Additionally, opioids have sedative effects that can help alleviate anxiety and promote relaxation. Therefore, in this situation, prescribing opioid medications would be the most appropriate intervention to address both the dyspnea and anxiety symptoms simultaneously. Oxygen therapy, relaxation techniques, and breathing exercises may also be useful adjunctive interventions, but opioid medications are typically prioritized for immediate symptom relief in this context.

Question 4 of 5

A patient with asthma experiences nocturnal cough, wheezing, and chest tightness several times per week. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for long-term control of asthma symptoms and prevention of exacerbations?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair) is a combination medication consisting of an inhaled corticosteroid (fluticasone) and a long-acting beta-agonist (salmeterol). This combination medication is recommended for long-term control of asthma symptoms and for the prevention of exacerbations. Fluticasone reduces airway inflammation, while salmeterol helps to relax the muscles of the airways, improving breathing. Using this combination medication regularly can help manage asthma symptoms and reduce the risk of asthma attacks. It is not appropriate to use short-acting beta-agonists like albuterol (salbutamol) on a long-term basis for asthma control. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that is more commonly used for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with fatigue, pallor, and exertional dyspnea. Laboratory tests reveal severe anemia, low serum iron, low transferrin saturation, and elevated total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of fatigue, pallor, exertional dyspnea along with the laboratory findings of severe anemia, low serum iron, low transferrin saturation, and elevated TIBC are consistent with iron deficiency anemia. In iron deficiency anemia, there is inadequate iron available for erythropoiesis leading to microcytic hypochromic anemia. The low serum iron and transferrin saturation, along with the elevated TIBC, indicate decreased iron stores and increased iron-binding capacity as the body tries to compensate for the deficiency by increasing absorption and recycling of iron. Anemia of chronic disease typically presents with mild to moderate anemia, normal to low TIBC, and low transferrin saturation due to iron sequestration in macrophages. Sideroblastic anemia usually has elevated serum iron, high saturation, and normal to low TIBC. Thalassemia presents with microcytic hyp

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