Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers

Questions 164

ATI RN

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset, severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye appears red, with a steamy cornea and mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described is consistent with acute angle-closure glaucoma. This condition typically presents with sudden-onset severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye appears red, with a steamy cornea due to corneal edema and a mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil due to pupillary block from the forward displacement of the iris. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is considered a medical emergency as it can lead to permanent vision loss if not promptly treated. Prompt management involves reducing intraocular pressure to prevent further damage to the optic nerve.

Question 2 of 5

A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. Which parameter should the nurse monitor closely during carvedilol therapy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Carvedilol is a beta-blocker primarily used to manage heart failure and hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure closely during carvedilol therapy is crucial because it helps assess the drug's effectiveness in managing heart failure and controlling hypertension. Carvedilol works by blocking certain receptors in the heart and blood vessels, which can lower blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure fluctuations allows healthcare providers to adjust the dosage accordingly to achieve optimal results and prevent potential complications in patients with heart failure. While monitoring blood glucose levels, serum potassium levels, and liver function tests are essential in managing other conditions or medications, the priority in a patient being prescribed carvedilol for heart failure is to monitor blood pressure levels.

Question 3 of 5

What should be the INITIAL S'TEP in the process of change for the senior nurse

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The initial step in the process of change for the senior nurse should be to identify the inefficiency that needs improvement or correction. Before setting goals, planning strategies, or identifying solutions, it is essential to first pinpoint the specific area or aspect that requires change. By identifying the inefficiency, the senior nurse can gain a clear understanding of the root cause of the issue and focus efforts on addressing it effectively. This step lays the foundation for the rest of the change process by providing a specific target for improvement.

Question 4 of 5

Nurse Rey with the members of the team. from a tertiary hospital is going for their annual outreach program Operation TULI". There were 3000 patients who came in the morning with only 4 doctors, 3 nurses and 1 pharmacist. Due to the volume of patients, Nurse Rey, was asked to participate in per forming circumcision with the rest of the doctors. Nurse Rey can be 1iable of committing

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Nurse Rey can be liable of committing malpractice by performing circumcisions without the proper training, qualifications, and legal authority to do so. Malpractice refers to negligence or failure to provide a standard level of care that results in harm to a patient. In this case, Nurse Rey participating in performing circumcisions may not have the necessary skills and expertise compared to the doctors who are trained to perform such procedures. This can lead to potential harm or complications for the patients, making it a case of malpractice.

Question 5 of 5

A pregnant woman presents with severe lower abdominal pain, fever, and vaginal discharge. On examination, cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness are noted, along with bilateral adnexal masses. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The constellation of severe lower abdominal pain, fever, and vaginal discharge in a pregnant woman raises suspicion for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness are classic physical exam findings for PID. The presence of bilateral adnexal masses further supports the diagnosis, as PID can lead to the formation of tubo-ovarian abscesses. Ectopic pregnancy may present with similar symptoms but is less likely in this case as bilateral adnexal masses suggest a more diffuse inflammatory process. Placenta previa would typically present with painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, which is not consistent with the symptoms described. Ovarian torsion would present with sudden severe unilateral lower abdominal pain and is less likely to involve both ovaries simultaneously.

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