ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Answer Key Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed insulin glargine (Lantus) once daily. Which statement indicates understanding of insulin glargine administration?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting insulin that is typically administered once daily at the same time each day to help maintain a steady level of insulin in the body. It is important to rotate injection sites within the same body region (such as the abdomen, thigh, or upper arm) to prevent lipodystrophy (lumpiness or dents in the skin) and to ensure consistent absorption of the insulin. Proper rotation of injection sites helps to prevent tissue damage and ensures optimal insulin absorption, improving the effectiveness of insulin therapy. It is not necessary to inject insulin glargine before meals, vigorously shake the vial, or administer it with a rapid-acting insulin.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is resistant to the change and is not taking an active part in facilitating the process of change. Which is the BEST approach in dealing with the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best approach in dealing with a nurse who is resistant to change and not actively participating is to communicate and encourage verbalizing feelings about the change. By talking with the nurse and allowing them to express their concerns and feelings, you can address any underlying issues that may be causing the resistance. This approach can help build trust, improve communication, and ultimately increase the nurse's engagement in the change process. Coercion (Choice A) can create negative feelings and resistance, while ignoring the nurse's resistance (Choice D) will not resolve the issue. Providing positive rewards (Choice B) may be helpful but may not address the underlying reasons for resistance. Communication is key in addressing resistance to change and fostering a positive, open environment for all involved.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with generalized weakness, headache, and difficulty concentrating. Laboratory tests reveal normocytic normochromic anemia, normal iron studies, and elevated serum erythropoietin levels. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient in this scenario presents with normocytic normochromic anemia, normal iron studies, and elevated serum erythropoietin levels. These findings are characteristic of anemia of chronic disease, which is commonly seen in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD). In CKD, there is a decrease in renal production of erythropoietin, leading to reduced stimulation of erythropoiesis and subsequent anemia. The normocytic normochromic anemia pattern is typical in anemia of chronic disease, as opposed to microcytic hypochromic anemia seen in iron deficiency anemia and thalassemia. Aplastic anemia is characterized by pancytopenia, which is not described in the scenario. Therefore, the most likely cause of the patient's presentation is chronic kidney disease.
Question 4 of 5
A pregnant woman presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and dark red vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks gestation. On examination, the uterus is tender, and the fundus feels firm. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely cause of the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and dark red vaginal bleeding with a tender, firm uterus at 28 weeks gestation is abruptio placentae. Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. This condition can be life-threatening to both the mother and the fetus, as it can lead to severe bleeding and compromise the oxygen and nutrients supply to the fetus. The presentation typically includes severe abdominal pain, dark red or maroon vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and a firm uterus due to the blood accumulation behind the placenta. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial to prevent adverse maternal and fetal outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
A patient presents with grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, affecting the lips and perioral region. The patient reports a history of similar episodes triggered by sunlight exposure and stress. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation with grouped vesicles on an erythematous base affecting the lips and perioral region, triggered by sunlight exposure and stress, is classic for herpes simplex labialis, commonly known as cold sores. Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) is responsible for cold sores and is highly contagious. Recurrent episodes can be triggered by factors like UV exposure, stress, illness, and hormonal changes. Symptoms typically start with tingling or burning sensations before progressing to grouped vesicles that rupture, forming crusts. Treatment may involve antiviral medications to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms. Perioral dermatitis typically presents with papules and pustules around the mouth, while angular cheilitis involves fissures and inflammation at the corners of the mouth. Allergic contact dermatitis would present with erythema, pruritus, and possibly vesicles in
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