ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is brought to the emergency department experiencing a possible stroke. What initial diagnostic test for a stroke , usually performed in the emergency department would the nurse prepare the patient for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the emergency department setting, the initial diagnostic test typically performed for a patient suspected of having a stroke is a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the head. This imaging study is crucial in evaluating and diagnosing stroke because it can quickly identify whether the person is having a hemorrhagic stroke (bleeding in the brain) or an ischemic stroke (blood clot blocking a blood vessel). The results of the CT scan help guide immediate treatment decisions, such as administering clot-busting medications for ischemic strokes or preparing for surgical interventions for hemorrhagic strokes. Carotid ultrasound studies and transcranial Doppler flow studies may be performed after the initial CT scan to further assess the extent of damage and the underlying cause of the stroke. The 12-lead electrocardiogram is useful in assessing the heart's electrical activity but is not the primary test for diagnosing stroke.
Question 2 of 5
A patient expresses confusion about their medication regimen. What is the nurse's best approach to address this issue?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's best approach to address the patient's confusion about their medication regimen is to use a teach-back method to assess understanding and clarify any misconceptions. This method involves the nurse asking the patient to explain in their own words how they will take their medications, what each medication is for, and any potential side effects they should watch for. By using the teach-back method, the nurse can confirm the patient's comprehension and correct any misunderstandings in a supportive and non-judgmental manner. This approach promotes patient education, empowerment, and adherence to the medication regimen. Providing written instructions alone (Choice A) may not be sufficient if the patient has difficulty reading or understanding written information. Explaining the medication regimen using complex medical terminology (Choice B) can further confuse the patient, making it harder for them to grasp the information. Dismissing the patient's concerns and reassuring them that the medication is safe (Choice D) does not address the root of the issue and
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of pregnancy test?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose of a pregnancy test is to confirm whether a woman is pregnant or not. Once pregnancy is confirmed, it is crucial for the individual to begin prenatal care as early as possible to ensure a healthy pregnancy and delivery. Early initiation of care can help monitor the health of both the mother and the developing fetus, detect any potential issues or complications early on, and provide necessary interventions or treatments. Therefore, the main objective of a pregnancy test is to enable early initiation of care for the pregnant individual.
Question 4 of 5
A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye, along with a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels, is classic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO). In CRAO, there is a sudden blockage of the central retinal artery, leading to ischemia of the retina. The cherry-red spot represents the preserved choroid blood flow against the ischemic retina. The attenuated retinal vessels are a result of decreased blood flow in the retinal circulation. This condition is considered an ophthalmic emergency and requires immediate evaluation and management to prevent permanent vision loss.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with recurrent pulmonary exacerbations characterized by increased sputum production, cough, and fever. Which of the following treatments is most effective for addressing the underlying pathophysiology of CF and preventing disease progression?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most effective treatment for addressing the underlying pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis (CF) and preventing disease progression is the use of mucolytic agents, such as dornase alfa. CF is a genetic disorder that leads to the production of thick, sticky mucus in the respiratory tract. This mucus buildup can obstruct airways, lead to recurrent infections, and contribute to pulmonary exacerbations. Mucolytic agents work by reducing the viscosity of the mucus, making it easier to clear from the airways. This helps to improve lung function, reduce the frequency of exacerbations, and slow down disease progression in CF patients. Inhaled corticosteroids may be used for managing airway inflammation, but they do not target the underlying mucus production in CF. Antibiotic therapy is important for treating respiratory infections in CF patients, but it does not address the primary
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