Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with recurrent pulmonary exacerbations characterized by increased sputum production, cough, and fever. Which of the following treatments is most effective for addressing the underlying pathophysiology of CF and preventing disease progression?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most effective treatment for addressing the underlying pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis (CF) and preventing disease progression is the use of mucolytic agents, such as dornase alfa. CF is a genetic disorder that leads to the production of thick, sticky mucus in the respiratory tract. This mucus buildup can obstruct airways, lead to recurrent infections, and contribute to pulmonary exacerbations. Mucolytic agents work by reducing the viscosity of the mucus, making it easier to clear from the airways. This helps to improve lung function, reduce the frequency of exacerbations, and slow down disease progression in CF patients. Inhaled corticosteroids may be used for managing airway inflammation, but they do not target the underlying mucus production in CF. Antibiotic therapy is important for treating respiratory infections in CF patients, but it does not address the primary

Question 2 of 5

A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute myocardial infarction (MI) with ST-segment elevation on electrocardiogram (ECG). What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's MI?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with acute myocardial infarction (MI) presenting with ST-segment elevation on ECG, the healthcare team should prioritize performing emergent coronary angiography for revascularization. This intervention, also known as primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), involves opening up the blocked coronary artery responsible for the MI. Timely reperfusion of the affected artery is crucial in reducing myocardial damage and improving outcomes in acute MI patients. PCI is considered the preferred method for revascularization in patients with ST-segment elevation MI, as it has been shown to be more effective and associated with better outcomes compared to fibrinolytic therapy.

Question 3 of 5

A patient with a history of Hodgkin lymphoma presents with fever, chills, and generalized malaise. Laboratory tests reveal pancytopenia, circulating Reed-Sternberg cells, and bone marrow involvement. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The patient is presenting with symptoms and laboratory findings consistent with a paraneoplastic syndrome related to Hodgkin lymphoma. In this case, the fever, chills, generalized malaise, pancytopenia, circulating Reed-Sternberg cells, and bone marrow involvement are all indicative of a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with Hodgkin lymphoma. Paraneoplastic syndromes are a group of disorders that are triggered by an abnormal immune response to a neoplasm, such as Hodgkin lymphoma, leading to various systemic manifestations.

Question 4 of 5

systematic meta- analysis of the literature?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Systematic meta-analysis of the literature typically involves synthesizing research findings from multiple studies on a particular topic. The most common way to gather relevant studies for a meta-analysis is by searching through electronic databases. These databases contain a wide range of peer-reviewed literature such as research articles, reviews, and conference papers. Using electronic databases ensures a comprehensive and systematic approach to finding all relevant studies needed for a meta-analysis. While doctoral dissertations and statistical methods such as those offered by Cochrane can also be valuable sources of information, an electronic database is the primary tool used for conducting a systematic meta-analysis of the literature.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with progressively worsening anemia and elevated serum phosphate levels. Which medication is commonly prescribed to reduce serum phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Sevelamer is a medication commonly prescribed to reduce serum phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease. Sevelamer is a phosphate binder that works by binding to dietary phosphate in the gut, preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. By reducing serum phosphate levels, sevelamer helps manage complications associated with hyperphosphatemia in chronic kidney disease patients, such as mineral and bone disorders. Other medications like epoetin alfa are used to treat anemia commonly seen in chronic kidney disease patients, while cinacalcet is used to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Allopurinol, on the other hand, is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid levels and is not indicated for reducing serum phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease patients.

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