ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient has been diagnosed with cytomegalovirus (CMV). Which of the following drugs would be ineffective in the treatment of this disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patients taking anticoagulants should avoid combined oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of thromboembolism.
Question 2 of 5
A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Progestin-only contraceptives are less likely to cause hypertension compared to combined oral contraceptives and may be preferred in women with cardiovascular risk factors.
Question 3 of 5
A 74-year-old woman states that many of her peers underwent hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in years past. The woman asks the nurse why her primary care provider has not yet proposed this treatment for her. What fact should underlie the nurse's response to the woman?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the main reason HRT is not recommended for all women is due to the increased risks of stroke and breast cancer associated with its use. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the primary concerns regarding HRT use. HRT can indeed cause mood disturbances and may have effects on bone health, but the main concerns regarding its use revolve around the risks of stroke and breast cancer.
Question 4 of 5
On the advice of his brother, a 53-year-old man has made an appointment to request a prescription for Viagra. The nurse who works at the clinic is reviewing the man's medical history and would recognize what health problem as being prohibitive to this treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated with Viagra due to their combined effects on lowering blood pressure, which can result in a severe drop and potentially life-threatening complications. Using both medications together can lead to hypotension, putting the patient at risk. Therefore, the presence of angina treated with nitroglycerin would make prescribing Viagra unsafe. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindicated with Viagra and can be managed concurrently with this treatment.
Question 5 of 5
What action is specific to hormonal contraceptives and should be taught to this woman?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action specific to hormonal contraceptives that should be taught to the woman is that they alter cervical mucus to prevent sperm penetration. This mechanism helps in preventing pregnancy by reducing the chances of sperm reaching the egg. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate as hormonal contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation rather than increasing follicle-stimulating hormone release. Choice C is incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not activate the maturation of the endometrial lining; instead, they modify it to prevent implantation. Choice D is also incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not stimulate the pituitary gland to increase luteinizing hormone synthesis and release.
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