Physical Assessment NCLEX Practice Questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a patient presents with epistaxis (nosebleed), other causes such as intracranial hemorrhage should be considered. Intracranial hemorrhage refers to bleeding within the skull, which can sometimes manifest as epistaxis. Common symptoms of intracranial hemorrhage include severe headache, altered mental status, focal neurological deficits, and sometimes, epistaxis. It is essential to assess for signs of increased intracranial pressure or neurological deficits if a patient with epistaxis has a history of trauma or other risk factors for intracranial bleeding. Immediate medical evaluation and imaging studies may be necessary to rule out intracranial hemorrhage in such cases to prevent serious consequences.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A splenic rub is a friction rub heard on auscultation in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, typically in patients with an enlarged spleen. The rough grating noise heard during examination is due to the rubbing together of the inflamed or irritated peritoneal surfaces surrounding the spleen. This is a classic finding in patients with splenomegaly and is often associated with left upper quadrant pain. Bowel noises (borborygmi) are typically heard in the abdomen and are softer, gurgling, or rumbling in nature. Vascular noises are related to blood flow and are typically not associated with such sounds in the abdomen.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A dissecting aortic aneurysm is the most likely disorder that best describes the symptoms presented. In this condition, the inner layer of the aorta tears and blood can flow between the layers of the aortic wall, causing a number of potential symptoms. A patient with a dissecting aortic aneurysm may present with a difference in pulses between the right and left sides due to decreased blood flow to one side. The bounding pulse on one side and weak pulse on the other are indicative of uneven blood flow distribution. Additionally, a dissecting aortic aneurysm can lead to respiratory symptoms such as increased respiratory rate if there is associated pain or discomfort, although clear lung sounds would not typically be expected with this condition. The condition is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate evaluation and treatment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient most likely has a hydrocele based on the presentation of a painless, soft cystic-like lesion measuring 2 cm over his right testicle. A hydrocele is a collection of fluid surrounding the testicle within the tunica vaginalis, resulting in a painless scrotal swelling. It is common and can occur at any age but is more common in older individuals. A key feature of a hydrocele is that the swelling is not reducible, meaning it cannot be pushed back into the abdomen. In this patient, there was no difficulty getting a gloved finger through either inguinal ring, ruling out a scrotal hernia. Testicular tumors typically present as painless testicular masses but are usually solid rather than cystic. Varicoceles are enlarged veins within the scrotum and have a characteristic "bag of worms" appearance on palpation, which is not described in this case.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Secondary amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation for 3-6 months in a woman who previously had regular menstrual cycles. In this case, Jean's lack of menstruation after giving birth and while breastfeeding her child for 6 months likely indicates secondary amenorrhea. This temporary suppression of ovulation and menstruation commonly occurs during breastfeeding due to the high levels of the hormone prolactin, which is responsible for milk production and can inhibit ovulation and menstruation. It is a natural phenomenon known as lactational amenorrhea. Once breastfeeding decreases or stops, menstruation usually resumes within a few months.