ATI RN
Physical Assessment NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient complains of epistaxis. Which other cause should be considered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a patient presents with epistaxis (nosebleed), other causes such as intracranial hemorrhage should be considered. Intracranial hemorrhage refers to bleeding within the skull, which can sometimes manifest as epistaxis. Common symptoms of intracranial hemorrhage include severe headache, altered mental status, focal neurological deficits, and sometimes, epistaxis. It is essential to assess for signs of increased intracranial pressure or neurological deficits if a patient with epistaxis has a history of trauma or other risk factors for intracranial bleeding. Immediate medical evaluation and imaging studies may be necessary to rule out intracranial hemorrhage in such cases to prevent serious consequences.
Question 2 of 5
Suzanne, a 25 year old, comes to your clinic to establish care. You are the student preparing to go into the examination room to interview her. Which of the following is the most logical sequence for the patient-provider interview?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most logical sequence for the patient-provider interview is to greet the patient, establish rapport, invite the patient's story, establish the agenda, expand and clarify the patient's story, and negotiate a plan. This sequence ensures a patient-centered approach by first building a connection with the patient, allowing the patient to share their concerns and story, and then working collaboratively with the patient to address these concerns. It is important to start by building rapport to establish trust and a comfortable environment for the patient to open up about their health concerns. Inviting the patient's story allows the provider to understand the patient's perspective and how their symptoms are impacting their life. Establishing the agenda sets the priorities for the visit and ensures that both the provider and patient are on the same page. Expanding and clarifying the patient's story helps gather more detailed information, leading to a comprehensive assessment. Finally, negotiating a plan together with the patient ensures shared decision-making and a patient-centered approach
Question 3 of 5
A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint pain. The pain is new, located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever. The patient denies a rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family history significant for rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following pathologic processes would be the most correct?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most likely pathologic process based on the patient's symptoms and history would be an inflammatory process. The patient's joint pain, fever, and family history of rheumatoid arthritis suggest the possibility of an autoimmune inflammatory condition like rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The bilateral involvement of the wrists and fingers along with a family history of rheumatoid arthritis make this diagnosis more likely than an infectious, hematologic, or traumatic process in this case.
Question 4 of 5
A 36-year-old security officer comes to your clinic, complaining of a painless mass in his scrotum. He found it 3 days ago during a testicular self-examination. He has had no burning with urination and no pain during sexual intercourse. He denies any weight loss, weight gain, fever, or night sweats. His past medical history is notable for high blood pressure. He is married and has three healthy children. He denies using illegal drugs, smokes two to three cigars a week, and drinks six to eight alcoholic beverages per week. His mother is in good health and his father had high blood pressure and coronary artery disease. On physical examination he appears anxious but in no pain. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis, he is circumcised and has no lesions. His inguinal region has no lymphadenopathy. Palpation of his scrotum shows a soft cystic-like lesion measuring 2 cm over his right testicle. There is no difficulty getting a gloved finger through either inguinal ring. With weight bearing there are no bulges. His prostate examination is unremarkable. What disorder of the scrotum does he most likely have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient most likely has a hydrocele based on the presentation of a painless, soft cystic-like lesion measuring 2 cm over his right testicle. A hydrocele is a collection of fluid surrounding the testicle within the tunica vaginalis, resulting in a painless scrotal swelling. It is common and can occur at any age but is more common in older individuals. A key feature of a hydrocele is that the swelling is not reducible, meaning it cannot be pushed back into the abdomen. In this patient, there was no difficulty getting a gloved finger through either inguinal ring, ruling out a scrotal hernia. Testicular tumors typically present as painless testicular masses but are usually solid rather than cystic. Varicoceles are enlarged veins within the scrotum and have a characteristic "bag of worms" appearance on palpation, which is not described in this case.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is describing a very personal part of her history very quickly and in great detail. How should you react to this?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this situation, it is important to prioritize active listening over taking detailed notes. By pushing away from the keyboard or putting down your pen, you are signaling to the patient that you are fully present and engaged in listening to their story. This will help foster trust and encourage the patient to continue sharing their personal history. Taking notes can be done later, but the immediate focus should be on providing a supportive and attentive environment for the patient to share their experiences.
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