ATI RN Exit Exam

Questions 72

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI RN Exit Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin level. Monitoring the serum albumin level helps assess the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Serum albumin is a protein that reflects the long-term nutritional status of a patient. Serum calcium level (choice A) is not directly related to TPN effectiveness. Blood glucose level (choice B) is important to monitor in diabetic patients but is not the primary indicator of TPN efficacy. Serum sodium level (choice D) is more related to fluid balance and electrolyte status rather than the effectiveness of TPN.

Question 2 of 5

What is the correct method to teach a patient about self-administration of insulin?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct method to teach a patient about self-administration of insulin is to use a 90-degree angle for injection. This angle ensures proper subcutaneous administration of insulin, which is essential for effective absorption. Injecting into the upper arm (Choice A) is not recommended for insulin administration. While rotating injection sites (Choice B) is important to prevent lipodystrophy, the angle of injection is crucial for proper insulin delivery. Using a 45-degree angle (Choice C) is more suitable for intramuscular injections, not for subcutaneous insulin injections.

Question 3 of 5

What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, the priority is to protect the heart from potential complications like arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment as it stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane. Insulin (Choice B) and sodium bicarbonate (Choice C) can be used in conjunction with other treatments to shift potassium into cells, but calcium gluconate is the priority. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia and can even worsen the condition by reducing potassium excretion.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Warfarin's effectiveness is reduced by high intake of vitamin K-rich foods, so increasing their intake would contradict the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate statements for a client on warfarin therapy. Avoiding vitamin K-rich foods helps maintain the medication's effectiveness, avoiding aspirin reduces the risk of bleeding, and monitoring blood pressure is essential for overall health monitoring.

Question 5 of 5

Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.

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