ATI RN Exit Exam

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, the priority is to protect the heart from potential complications like arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment as it stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane. Insulin (Choice B) and sodium bicarbonate (Choice C) can be used in conjunction with other treatments to shift potassium into cells, but calcium gluconate is the priority. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia and can even worsen the condition by reducing potassium excretion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is elevated, indicating impaired blood clotting function, which poses a significant risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. This finding should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Albumin 3.5 g/dL) is within the normal range and indicates adequate liver synthetic function, so it does not require immediate reporting. Choice B (Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL) is also within the normal range and typically seen in clients without significant liver dysfunction, so it does not need urgent attention. Choice D (Ammonia 80 mcg/dL) is elevated, but it is not the priority finding in cirrhosis; elevated ammonia levels are associated with hepatic encephalopathy rather than increased bleeding risk.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a common finding in clients with ARDS as the body attempts to compensate for impaired gas exchange. Barrel-shaped chest (Choice A) is associated with conditions like COPD, not ARDS. Bradycardia (Choice B) is unlikely in ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanisms to improve oxygenation. Tracheal deviation (Choice D) is not typically seen in ARDS and is more suggestive of other respiratory conditions.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client receiving radiation therapy to the head and neck is to avoid exposure to direct sunlight. Direct sunlight should be avoided to protect the skin from further irritation and damage caused by the radiation therapy. Instructing the client to use an alcohol-free mouthwash is important to prevent irritation and maintain oral hygiene, making choice A incorrect. Applying heat packs to the radiation site is contraindicated as heat can further aggravate the skin, making choice B incorrect. Providing a diet low in carbohydrates is not directly related to radiation therapy to the head and neck, so choice C is also incorrect.