ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught self-administration of insulin by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region. This practice helps reduce the risk of lipodystrophy, a condition characterized by fatty tissue changes due to repeated insulin injections in the same spot. By rotating sites, the client ensures better insulin absorption and prevents localized skin changes. Injecting air into the vial before withdrawing insulin (Choice A) is unnecessary and not recommended. Drawing up short-acting insulin before long-acting insulin (Choice B) is not a standard practice and can lead to errors in dosing. Storing unopened insulin vials in the freezer (Choice C) is incorrect as insulin should be stored in the refrigerator, not the freezer, to maintain its effectiveness.
Question 2 of 5
A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports frequent nausea and vomiting. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting are common. Instructing the client to eat dry carbohydrates like crackers before getting out of bed can help alleviate these symptoms. This recommendation helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen nausea. High-protein foods (Choice A) may be harder to digest and could exacerbate nausea. Lying down after meals (Choice B) may increase gastric reflux and worsen symptoms. Drinking water with meals (Choice C) may make the client feel fuller, potentially worsening nausea.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crackles in the lung bases. In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, suggesting worsening respiratory status. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B, an oxygen saturation of 95%, is within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, a heart rate of 88/min, is also within normal limits and does not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Choice D, a frequent productive cough, is a common symptom in pneumonia and may not require immediate reporting unless it is severe or worsening. Therefore, crackles in the lung bases are the most concerning finding that warrants prompt attention.
Question 4 of 5
Which lab value is most critical to monitor in a patient receiving digoxin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in a patient receiving digoxin. Hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin, leading to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent toxicity. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B), calcium levels (Choice C), and magnesium levels (Choice D) are also important aspects of patient care, but potassium levels are most critical in patients on digoxin therapy.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access