ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who has a positive stool culture for Clostridium difficile should be placed in which type of room for infection control purposes?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placing the client in a private room is the appropriate infection control measure for C. difficile to prevent the spread of infection. While wearing a face shield may be necessary for procedures that generate splashes or sprays, it is not the primary precaution for C. difficile. Negative pressure rooms are typically used for airborne infections, not for C. difficile. Using an alcohol-based hand rub is important for hand hygiene but is not specific to managing C. difficile infection.
Question 2 of 5
When digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction, what action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action when digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction is to insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall. This technique helps prevent trauma and is the appropriate method for addressing fecal impaction. Choice B is incorrect as stimulating peristalsis will not directly assist in evacuating the impacted stool. Choice C is incorrect as applying pressure to the abdomen is not the recommended method for stool evacuation. Choice D is incorrect as increasing fluid intake does not directly aid in digitally evacuating the stool.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crackles in the lung bases. In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, suggesting worsening respiratory status. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B, an oxygen saturation of 95%, is within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, a heart rate of 88/min, is also within normal limits and does not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Choice D, a frequent productive cough, is a common symptom in pneumonia and may not require immediate reporting unless it is severe or worsening. Therefore, crackles in the lung bases are the most concerning finding that warrants prompt attention.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin level. Monitoring the serum albumin level helps assess the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Serum albumin is a protein that reflects the long-term nutritional status of a patient. Serum calcium level (choice A) is not directly related to TPN effectiveness. Blood glucose level (choice B) is important to monitor in diabetic patients but is not the primary indicator of TPN efficacy. Serum sodium level (choice D) is more related to fluid balance and electrolyte status rather than the effectiveness of TPN.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presence of small blood clots in the urine is an expected finding after a TURP due to the surgical manipulation of the prostate bed and the bladder. However, larger clots can indicate excessive bleeding and should be reported promptly. Urine output of 30 mL/hr is within the expected range for post-TURP clients, indicating adequate kidney perfusion. Pink-tinged urine is also normal after a TURP due to minor bleeding from the surgical site. A blood pressure of 114/78 mm Hg is within normal limits and does not require immediate reporting.
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