ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for preventing pressure ulcers in a client at risk is to turn the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and preventing tissue damage. Using a donut-shaped cushion can actually increase pressure on the skin and worsen the risk of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is beneficial for preventing aspiration in some cases but does not directly address pressure ulcer prevention. Massaging reddened areas can further damage the skin and increase the risk of pressure ulcer development by causing friction and shearing forces.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A persistent cough is a known adverse effect of enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to a dry, persistent cough in some patients. Dry mouth (choice B) and urinary retention (choice C) are not typically associated with enalapril use. Insomnia (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare professional is assessing a client receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hypotension is a common adverse effect of morphine due to its vasodilatory properties. It can lead to a drop in blood pressure, which should be closely monitored during administration. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Urinary retention (Choice B) is a side effect of morphine due to its impact on the bladder muscles, but it is not classified as an adverse effect. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of morphine; instead, it tends to cause tachycardia.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for preventing pressure ulcers in a client at risk is to turn the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and preventing tissue damage. Using a donut-shaped cushion can actually increase pressure on the skin and worsen the risk of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is beneficial for preventing aspiration in some cases but does not directly address pressure ulcer prevention. Massaging reddened areas can further damage the skin and increase the risk of pressure ulcer development by causing friction and shearing forces.
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