ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

Questions 81

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with iron-deficiency anemia is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red meat. Red meat is a good dietary source of heme iron, which is easily absorbed by the body and beneficial for individuals with iron-deficiency anemia. Oatmeal, bananas, and whole grains are not as rich in iron compared to red meat and may not provide sufficient amounts to help manage iron-deficiency anemia effectively.

Question 2 of 5

A healthcare provider is assessing a child who is being treated for bacterial pneumonia. The provider notes an increase in the child's glucose level. The provider should identify this finding as an adverse effect of which of the following medications?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, can lead to increased glucose levels as an adverse effect. Ondansetron is an antiemetic and does not typically cause elevated glucose levels. Guaifenesin is an expectorant and is not associated with raising glucose levels. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic and does not affect glucose levels.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This action helps reduce the risk of infection because the high glucose content of TPN promotes bacterial growth. Choice A is incorrect as changing the tubing every 48 hours would not provide adequate infection prevention. Option C, monitoring urine output, is important for assessing renal function but is not directly related to preventing TPN-related infections. Option D, monitoring weight, is essential for assessing nutritional status but does not directly address infection prevention in TPN administration.

Question 4 of 5

A client is experiencing a seizure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: During a seizure, it is essential to loosen tight clothing around the client to prevent injury and promote adequate ventilation. Placing any objects, like a tongue depressor, in the client's mouth can lead to airway obstruction or injury. Restraining the client's arms and legs can exacerbate the situation by increasing muscle rigidity and potentially causing injury. Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is not typically indicated during a seizure unless respiratory distress is present.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent postoperative complications?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have the client wear sequential compression devices (SCDs). Following a cholecystectomy, the client is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) due to reduced mobility and surgical stress. SCDs help prevent VTE by promoting venous return and reducing the risk of blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While deep breathing and coughing exercises are essential postoperatively, SCDs take precedence in preventing VTE. Placing the client in a supine position with the head of the bed flat can increase the risk of respiratory complications. Encouraging ambulation is important, but SCDs are a higher priority in this situation to prevent VTE.

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