Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A rapid, thready pulse. After paracentesis, rapid removal of ascitic fluid can lead to a decrease in intravascular volume, causing hypovolemia and subsequent compensatory mechanisms like tachycardia (rapid pulse). This is a crucial sign that the nurse should monitor for early detection of hypovolemia. B: Decreased peristalsis is not directly related to paracentesis and is not an immediate concern post-procedure. C: Respiratory congestion is not a common complication of paracentesis and is not the most immediate concern. D: An increased temperature is not a typical response to paracentesis and is not a priority observation post-procedure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fluid intake of less than 2,500mL. In diabetes insipidus, the body cannot properly regulate fluid balance, leading to excessive thirst and urination. Successful treatment aims to manage these symptoms by reducing fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Therefore, a decrease in fluid intake indicates successful treatment. Explanation for incorrect choices: B: Blood pressure of 90/50mmHg - Blood pressure is not directly related to the treatment of diabetes insipidus. C: Pulse rate of 126 beats/min - Pulse rate is not a specific indicator of successful treatment for diabetes insipidus. D: Urine output of more than 200mL/hour - In diabetes insipidus, excessive urine output is a symptom of the condition, so an increase in urine output does not indicate successful treatment.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because assessing for localized ischemia involves evaluating multiple factors. A: Assessing color and temperature helps determine perfusion. B: Checking capillary refill assesses circulation. C: Evaluating pulse rate indicates cardiac output. Doing all of the above provides a comprehensive assessment of arterial flow and potential ischemia. Other choices are incorrect as they do not cover all aspects necessary for a thorough assessment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcitonin level. Smoking can elevate serum calcitonin levels due to the effect of nicotine. However, an elevated serum calcitonin level is not a general indicator of cancer. Step 1: Understand that smoking can increase serum calcitonin levels. Step 2: Recognize that elevated serum calcitonin levels are not specific to cancer and can be influenced by other factors. Step 3: Differentiate between a marker that is specific to cancer (such as carcinoembryonic antigen) and one that can be affected by smoking but not necessarily indicative of cancer (serum calcitonin). Thus, while smoking can elevate serum calcitonin levels, it is not a reliable indicator of cancer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whisper voice test. This test is used as an initial screening for hearing loss because it is simple, quick, and easily administered by a nurse. The nurse would whisper words or numbers at a specific distance from the patient to assess their ability to hear and repeat the whispered sounds accurately. This test provides a quick indication of potential hearing impairment. The other choices are incorrect: A: Romberg test assesses balance and not hearing. B: Caloric test evaluates the vestibular system, not hearing. C: Otoscopic examination is used to examine the ear canal and tympanic membrane, not to screen for hearing loss.