ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The pain of an MI is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. It typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI occurs without a known cause such as exertion.
Question 3 of 5
A client is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). The client is young, healthy, and active, and has no known risk factors for PE. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to teach the client about factor V Leiden testing. Factor V Leiden is an inherited thrombophilia that can lead to abnormal clotting events, including pulmonary embolism (PE). In a case where a client has no known risk factors for PE, testing for this genetic disorder is crucial to determine if it is a contributing factor. Encouraging the client to walk or referring them to smoking cessation classes, while beneficial for overall health, are not directly relevant to the development of a PE in this specific case. While it is true that sometimes no cause for a disease is found, prematurely assuming this without appropriate investigations may lead to missed opportunities for preventive measures or treatments.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking warfarin, an anticoagulant, is to report any signs of bruising or bleeding to the healthcare provider promptly. This is crucial as these symptoms may indicate over-anticoagulation, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is essential to adjust the medication dosage or take appropriate measures to ensure the client's safety.
Question 5 of 5
During a call to the on-call physician about a client who had a hysterectomy 2 days ago & has unrelieved pain from prescribed narcotic medication, which statement is part of the SBAR format for communication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SBAR is a structured form of communication used in healthcare settings. It stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation. In this scenario, informing the on-call physician about the client's allergies to morphine & codeine falls under the 'Background' component of the SBAR format, making choice B the correct answer.
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