Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free

Questions 68

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client is scheduled to receive methotrexate (Folex), 0.625 mg/kg P.O. daily, to treat malignant lymphoma. Before administering the drug, the nurse reviews the client�s medication history. Which of the following drugs might interact with methotrexate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Probenecid (Benemid). Probenecid can increase methotrexate levels, leading to potential toxicity. Methotrexate is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, and Probenecid inhibits renal tubular secretion, causing methotrexate levels to rise. Digoxin (A), theophylline (C), and famotidine (D) do not have significant interactions with methotrexate. In summary, Probenecid is the correct answer as it can increase methotrexate levels through renal tubular secretion inhibition, while the other choices do not have a significant interaction with methotrexate.

Question 2 of 5

Before a cancer receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) resumes a normal diet, the nurse teaches him about dietary sources of minerals. Which foods are good sources of zinc?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole grains and meats. Zinc is found in high amounts in these foods. Meats, especially red meats and seafood, are rich sources of zinc. Whole grains like wheat, rice, and oats also contain significant amounts of zinc. Other choices are incorrect because fruits and vegetables are not typically good sources of zinc. Yeast and legumes are good sources of other minerals but not specifically zinc. It is important for the cancer patient to consume zinc-rich foods to support their immune system and overall health during recovery.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is completing an assessment. Which findings will the nurse report as subjective data? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because subjective data refers to information provided by the patient, such as their feelings, perceptions, and symptoms. In this case, the patient describing excitement about discharge is subjective as it is based on their personal experience. The other options (A, B, D) are objective data as they can be measured or observed directly without interpretation. The patient's temperature (A) and wound appearance (B) are physical observations, while the patient pacing the floor (D) is a behavior that can be observed. Therefore, only choice C fits the definition of subjective data in a nursing assessment.

Question 4 of 5

A patient who is being tested for HIV asks what tests are used. The nurse would correct in stating that the tests used to confirm HIV infection are which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: ELISA and Western Blot. The rationale is as follows: ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) and Western Blot are specific tests used to confirm HIV infection by detecting antibodies or antigens related to the virus. ELISA is the initial screening test, while Western Blot is the confirmatory test. These tests are highly sensitive and specific for HIV detection. Choice A is incorrect because CD4+ cell count and thymus function are not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are used to monitor disease progression and immune function in HIV-positive individuals. Choice C is incorrect because B-cell and T-cell count are also not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are indicators of immune system health but not specific for HIV diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because while CD4+ and viral load tests are used in monitoring HIV progression, ELISA is the main confirmatory test for HIV diagnosis, and viral load is not typically used for initial

Question 5 of 5

A 28 y.o man is diagnosed with acute epididymitis. Which of the ff. symptoms supports this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Severe tenderness and swelling in the scrotum. Epididymitis is characterized by inflammation of the epididymis, causing symptoms such as severe tenderness and swelling in the scrotum. Choice A is incorrect as burning and pain on urination are more indicative of a urinary tract infection. Choice C, foul-smelling ejaculate and severe scrotal swelling, is not commonly associated with epididymitis. Choice D, foul-smelling urine and pain on urination, may indicate a urinary tract infection but are not specific to epididymitis.

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