Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition Test Bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. It is the drug of choice for treating systemic amebiasis due to its high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. Metronidazole is well-absorbed, reaches therapeutic levels in the intestines, liver, and lungs, making it effective in treating the multi-organ involvement in this case. Choice B: Quiniofone is not a recommended treatment for amebiasis. Choice C: Tetracycline is not the first-line treatment for systemic amebiasis. Choice D: Quingamine is not a recognized drug for treating amebiasis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Conjugation. Conjugation involves the transfer of genetic material from a donor cell to a recipient cell through direct cell-to-cell contact, typically mediated by a conjugative plasmid. During conjugation, a conjugative pilus forms a bridge between the donor and recipient cells, allowing the transfer of genetic material. A: Replication is the process of copying DNA to produce two identical DNA molecules. It does not involve the transfer of genetic material between cells. C: Transformation is the uptake and incorporation of foreign DNA from the environment by a bacterial cell. It does not require direct cell-to-cell contact. D: Transduction is the transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage vector. It does not involve direct cell-to-cell contact between the donor and recipient cells.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: psittacosis. Psittacosis is an infection caused by Chlamydia psittaci that primarily affects the lower respiratory tract, leading to pneumonia-like symptoms. Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes atypical pneumonia, not pharyngitis (Choice A). Chronic atrophic rhinitis (Choice C) and rhinoscleroma (Choice D) both affect the upper respiratory tract, not the lower respiratory tract. Psittacosis specifically targets the lower respiratory tract, making it the most appropriate answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Actinomycosis. This is because the patient's presentation of a painful swelling with a fistula containing white granules and yellow-green honeycomb-like tissue is classic for Actinomycosis. Actinomyces is a gram-positive anaerobic bacterium that forms sulfur granules in tissues. Tuberculosis (B) typically presents with caseating granulomas, not sulfur granules. Leprosy (C) presents with skin lesions and nerve damage, not characteristic of this case. Syphilis (D) usually presents with painless ulcers and rash, not the painful swelling and fistula seen in this patient.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a straight or slightly curved rod with occasional polymorphism. This bacterium does not conform to the characteristics of gram-negative coccus (A), gram-positive coccus (B), or gram-negative rod (C). Mycobacterium tuberculosis is characterized by its unique cell wall composition, which includes high lipid content and mycolic acids, contributing to its acid-fast staining property. The other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the morphology of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.