microbiology an introduction 13th edition test bank

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a straight or slightly curved rod with occasional polymorphism. This bacterium does not conform to the characteristics of gram-negative coccus (A), gram-positive coccus (B), or gram-negative rod (C). Mycobacterium tuberculosis is characterized by its unique cell wall composition, which includes high lipid content and mycolic acids, contributing to its acid-fast staining property. The other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the morphology of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin. Chingamin is a type of antimalarial drug that is commonly used for individual prevention of malaria. It works by targeting the malaria parasite in the body, preventing its growth and spread. Rifampicin (B), Ampicillin (C), and Gentamicin (D) are not effective for preventing malaria as they are antibiotics that target bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria. Therefore, Chingamin is the most appropriate choice for individual prevention of malaria due to its specific antimalarial properties.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium appears as purple-stained diplococci with pointed ends on Gram staining. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia. It is encapsulated and has a lancet-shaped appearance, which is characteristic of the pointed ends seen in the staining. Staphylococcus aureus (B) typically appears as clusters of gram-positive cocci, not diplococci. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a gram-negative rod, not a diplococci. Neisseria meningitidis (D) is a gram-negative diplococci but typically lacks the pointed ends seen in the staining of S. pneumoniae.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, chromoblastomycosis. This is a chronic localized subcutaneous infection caused by certain fungi, resulting in verrucoid lesions on the skin. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Candidiasis is a superficial fungal infection, not characterized by verrucoid lesions. B: Leprosy is a systemic bacterial infection, not localized to the skin with verrucoid lesions. C: Shingles is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, presenting as a painful rash with blisters, not verrucoid lesions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in chains: S. pyogenes is a Gram-positive cocci in chains. 2. Catalase-negative: S. pyogenes is catalase-negative. 3. Beta-hemolytic: S. pyogenes exhibits beta-hemolysis. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococcus pneumoniae is alpha-hemolytic and optochin-sensitive. C: Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative, but not typically beta-hemolytic. D: Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive.