ATI RN
Physical Assessment Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 47-year-old contractor presents for evaluation of neck pain, which has been intermittent for several years. He normally takes over-the-counter medications to ease the pain, but this time they haven't worked as well, and he still has discomfort. He recently wallpapered the entire second floor in his house, which caused him great discomfort. The pain resolved with rest. He denies fever, chills, rash, upper respiratory symptoms, trauma, or injury to the neck. Based on this description, what is the most likely pathologic process?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely pathologic process in this scenario is degenerative. The history provided includes chronic intermittent neck pain that worsened after a specific activity (wallpapering) but resolved with rest. The patient's age (47 years old) is also suggestive of degenerative changes in the spine. Additionally, the use of over-the-counter medications to manage the pain points towards a chronic condition such as degenerative changes in the cervical spine, possibly cervical spondylosis or osteoarthritis. There is no mention of any infectious symptoms, trauma, or neoplastic features in the presentation.
Question 2 of 5
A 27-year-old policewoman comes to your clinic, complaining of severe left-sided back pain radiating down into her groin. It began in the middle of the night and woke her up suddenly. It hurts in her bladder to urinate but she has no burning on the outside. She has had no frequency or urgency with urination but she has seen blood in her urine. She has had nausea with the pain but no vomiting or fever. She denies any other recent illness or injuries. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She denies tobacco or drug use and drinks alcohol rarely. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father is healthy. On examination she looks her stated age and is in obvious pain. She is lying on her left side trying to remain very still. Her cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. She has tenderness just inferior to the left costovertebral angle. Her urine pregnancy test is negative and her urine analysis shows red blood cells. What type of urinary tract pain is she most likely to have?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The policewoman's presentation of severe left-sided back pain radiating down into her groin, associated with nausea, blood in urine, and tenderness just inferior to the left costovertebral angle is highly suggestive of a kidney stone causing ureteral colic. Kidney stones are solid masses made of crystals that form in the kidneys and can cause sudden severe pain as they move through the urinary tract, leading to blockage and subsequent stretching of the ureter (the tube connecting the kidney to the bladder), resulting in pain that radiates from the flank down to the groin region. The presence of blood in the urine (hematuria) is a common finding with kidney stones due to irritation and damage to the ureteral lining as the stone passes. The negative urine pregnancy test rules out pregnancy-related causes of urinary symptoms. Musculoskeletal pain is less likely given the location and character of the pain
Question 3 of 5
You are assessing a patient with diffuse joint pains and want to make sure that only the joints are the problem, and that the pain is not related to other diseases. Which of the following is a systemic cause of joint pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lupus is a systemic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues throughout the body, including the joints. Joint pain in lupus is usually accompanied by other systemic symptoms such as fatigue, fever, skin rashes, and organ involvement. It is important to consider lupus as a potential cause of joint pain in a patient with diffuse joint symptoms to ensure proper management and treatment. Gout, osteoarthritis, and spondylosis are more localized conditions that primarily affect the joints without the systemic involvement typically seen in lupus.
Question 4 of 5
You are examining a patient with emphysema in exacerbation and are having difficulty hearing his heart sounds. What should you do to obtain a good examination?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a patient with emphysema, lung hyperinflation can make it difficult to hear heart sounds anteriorly. Listening posteriorly, especially between the scapulae, can often provide a clearer auscultation of the heart sounds due to reduced interference from lung sounds. The posterior approach can also help avoid any abdominal sounds that might obscure the cardiac sounds when auscultating in the epigastrium. It is important to make sure the patient is in a comfortable position for better examination, and in this case, listening posteriorly would be the best choice for assessing heart sounds in a patient with emphysema in exacerbation.
Question 5 of 5
A 47-year-old contractor presents for evaluation of neck pain, which has been intermittent for several years. He normally takes over-the-counter medications to ease the pain, but this time they haven't worked as well, and he still has discomfort. He recently wallpapered the entire second floor in his house, which caused him great discomfort. The pain resolved with rest. He denies fever, chills, rash, upper respiratory symptoms, trauma, or injury to the neck. Based on this description, what is the most likely pathologic process?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely pathologic process in this scenario is degenerative. The history provided includes chronic intermittent neck pain that worsened after a specific activity (wallpapering) but resolved with rest. The patient's age (47 years old) is also suggestive of degenerative changes in the spine. Additionally, the use of over-the-counter medications to manage the pain points towards a chronic condition such as degenerative changes in the cervical spine, possibly cervical spondylosis or osteoarthritis. There is no mention of any infectious symptoms, trauma, or neoplastic features in the presentation.
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