Physical Assessment Nursing Practice Questions

Questions 28

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Physical Assessment Nursing Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Mrs. Patton, a 48-year-old woman, comes to your office with a complaint of a breast mass. Without any other information, what is the risk of this mass being cancerous?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When a woman over the age of 40 presents with a breast mass, the risk of the mass being cancerous is around 40%. This risk is higher in older women compared to younger women. It is important for Mrs. Patton to undergo further evaluation, which may include imaging tests, a biopsy, and consultation with a specialist to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment. It is crucial to address breast masses promptly to ensure timely management and optimal outcomes.

Question 2 of 5

A 55-year-old bank teller comes to your office for persistent episodes of dizziness. The first episode started suddenly and lasted 3 to 4 hours. He experienced a lot of nausea with vomiting; the episode resolved spontaneously. He has had five episodes in the past 1½ weeks. He does note some tinnitus that comes and goes. Upon physical examination, you note that he has a normal gait. The Weber localizes to the right side and the air conduction is equal to the bone conduction in the right ear. Nystagmus is present. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the case, including recurrent episodes of dizziness, nausea with vomiting, tinnitus, nystagmus, and normal gait, is suggestive of Meni�re's disease. Meni�re's disease is a disorder of the inner ear characterized by episodes of vertigo, fluctuating hearing loss, tinnitus, and aural fullness. The presence of tinnitus, episodic vertigo lasting for several hours, and nystagmus are key features that point towards Meni�re's disease. The Weber test result (localization to the right ear) can also be seen in Meni�re's disease due to sensorineural hearing loss in the affected ear. This set of symptoms and findings is more consistent with Meni�re's disease than the other options provided. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) typically presents with brief episodes of vertigo triggered by changes in

Question 3 of 5

A patient complains of shortness of breath for the past few days. On examination, you note late inspiratory crackles in the lower third of the chest that were not present a week ago. What is the most likely explanation for these?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presence of late inspiratory crackles in the lower third of the chest that were not present previously is suggestive of pulmonary edema, a common finding in patients with heart failure. Heart failure can lead to fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing crackles on auscultation. These crackles are typically heard at the lung bases and can be more prominent during inspiration. Other clinical features of heart failure may include orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, lower extremity edema, and fatigue. Therefore, in this case, the most likely explanation for the patient's shortness of breath with late inspiratory crackles is heart failure.

Question 4 of 5

You are palpating the abdomen and feel a small mass. Which of the following would you do next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When palpating the abdomen and feeling a small mass, the next step would be to perform an ultrasound. Ultrasound imaging is a non-invasive and reliable way to further evaluate the size, location, and characteristics of the mass. It can provide valuable information to determine the nature of the mass, such as whether it is a cyst, a solid mass, or another type of abnormality. This imaging modality can help guide further management and treatment decisions, such as determining if surgery is necessary or if further monitoring is required. Ultrasound is a safe and commonly used tool in assessing abdominal masses, making it an appropriate next step in this scenario.

Question 5 of 5

Francis is a middle-aged man who noted right-sided lower abdominal pain after straining with yard work. Which of the following would make a hernia more likely?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Inguinal hernias are common types of hernias that occur in the groin area. When a person strains, the hernia may become more noticeable as the abdominal contents push through a weak spot in the abdominal wall. The absence of symmetry of the inguinal areas with straining indicates that there is a hernia present, as the bulge or protrusion in the groin area becomes more prominent with straining. This makes a hernia more likely in this case. Therefore, option D is the correct choice in this scenario. The other options do not directly point to the presence of a hernia.

Similar Questions

Francis is a middle-aged man who noted right-sided lower abdominal pain after straining with yard work. Which of the following would make a hernia more likely?
A 27-year-old policewoman comes to your clinic, complaining of severe left-sided back pain radiating down into her groin. It began in the middle of the night and woke her up suddenly. It hurts in her bladder to urinate but she has no burning on the outside. She has had no frequency or urgency with urination but she has seen blood in her urine. She has had nausea with the pain but no vomiting or fever. She denies any other recent illness or injuries. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She denies tobacco or drug use and drinks alcohol rarely. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father is healthy. On examination she looks her stated age and is in obvious pain. She is lying on her left side trying to remain very still. Her cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. She has tenderness just inferior to the left costovertebral angle. Her urine pregnancy test is negative and her urine analysis shows red blood cells. What type of urinary tract pain is she most likely to have?
It is accompanied by nausea and vomiting. It is located in the mid- epigastric area." Which of these categories does it belong to?
A 25-year-old accountant presents to your clinic, complaining of intermittent lower right- sided chest pain for several days. He describes it as knifelike and states it only lasts for 3 to 5 seconds, taking his breath away. He states he feels like he has to breathe shallowly to keep it from recurring. The only thing that makes it better is lying quietly on his right side. It is much worse when he takes a deep breath. He has taken some Tylenol and put a heating pad on his side but neither has helped. He remembers that 2 weeks ago he had an upper respiratory infection with a severe hacking cough. He denies any recent trauma. His past medical history is unremarkable. His parents and siblings are in good health. He has recently married, and his wife has a baby due in 2 months. He denies any smoking or illegal drug use. He drinks two to three beers once a month. He states that he eats a healthy diet and runs regularly, but not since his recent illness. He denies any cardiac, gastrointestinal, or musculoskeletal symptoms. On examination he is lying on his right side but appears quite comfortable. His temperature, blood pressure, pulse, and respirations are unremarkable. His chest has normal breath sounds on auscultation. Percussion of the chest is unremarkable. During palpation the ribs are nontender. What disorder of the chest best describes his symptoms?
Mrs. Patton, a 48-year-old woman, comes to your office with a complaint of a breast mass. Without any other information, what is the risk of this mass being cancerous?

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