microbiology chapter 1 test bank

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measles serological test. This is because the clinical presentation of high fever, maculopapular rash, and Filatov-Koplik's spots on the buccal mucosa are classic symptoms of measles. The presence of Filatov-Koplik's spots is highly specific for measles. Performing a measles serological test will help confirm the diagnosis by detecting measles-specific antibodies in the blood. Incorrect choices: A: Mumps serological test - Mumps typically presents with parotitis (swelling of the parotid glands) and not with Filatov-Koplik's spots. B: Enteroviruses serological test - Enteroviruses do not typically cause Filatov-Koplik's spots or the classic triad of symptoms seen in measles. D: Influenza virus serological test - Influenza virus does not cause Filatov-Koplik's spots and the characteristic rash seen

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Meat-peptone agar, as it provides a simple nutritive media for bacterial growth. This agar contains meat extract and peptone, which are good sources of nutrients for bacterial growth. Glucose broth (A) is a liquid medium with glucose but lacks other essential nutrients. Ascites (serum) agar (B) is a selective medium used for detecting pathogens in clinical samples. Blood agar (D) is a differential medium used to distinguish different types of bacteria based on hemolytic reactions. Meat-peptone agar is the simplest and most general-purpose medium among the options provided.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, and Streptococcus pneumoniae are all known to cause meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is a common cause of bacterial meningitis in young adults. Haemophilus influenzae is a leading cause of meningitis in children, and Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause in adults. Therefore, all three bacteria are responsible for causing meningitis, making option D the correct choice. Option A, B, and C are incorrect because they each represent only one of the bacteria responsible for causing meningitis, while option D includes all three.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the most likely causative agent because it is a Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule, which matches the description provided. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial pharyngitis and can present with sore throat. Summary of other choices: B: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci in clusters, not pairs, and is not typically associated with sore throat. C: Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus and more commonly causes meningitis or septicemia, not sore throat. D: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod bacterium, not a Gram-positive cocci, and is not a common cause of sore throat.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Paramyxoviridae. Mumps virus is a member of the Paramyxoviridae family, based on its characteristics such as structure, genome organization, and replication cycle. Paramyxoviruses are enveloped, non-segmented RNA viruses with a helical nucleocapsid. They replicate in the cytoplasm and bud from the host cell membrane. Coronaviridae (A) are a different family of viruses with distinct characteristics. Picornaviridae (B) and Orthomyxoviridae (C) are also different families with unique features that do not match those of the mumps virus.