microbiology chapter 1 test bank

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (60 years) because as individuals age, their immune system weakens, making them more susceptible to infectious diseases. Around the age of 60, people are more likely to succumb to infections, leading to a higher mortality rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are younger ages, and the likelihood of infectious diseases causing a significant proportion of deaths increases with age.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: active transport system. Permeases are specific carriers that actively transport molecules across a cell membrane against their concentration gradient, requiring energy input. This process is known as active transport, which is essential for maintaining cellular homeostasis and allowing the cell to accumulate specific molecules. Facilitated diffusion (A) and passive transport (B) both involve the movement of molecules down their concentration gradient without the need for energy input. Simple diffusion (C) also does not involve specific carriers and relies on the natural movement of molecules from areas of high concentration to low concentration. Therefore, the correct choice is D as permeases specifically function in active transport systems.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs indicates a bacterial morphology consistent with Streptococcus pneumoniae, a common cause of pneumonia. This bacterium is known to appear in pairs or short chains on Gram stain. Staphylococcus aureus (B) typically presents as clusters of Gram-positive cocci, Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus, and Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative rod, making them less likely causative agents in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Syphilis. Hutchinson's triad is a classic presentation of congenital syphilis. Barrel-shaped teeth, parenchymatous keratitis, and deafness are hallmark signs. These occur due to infection of the fetus by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis can lead to various systemic manifestations, including skeletal abnormalities, skin lesions, and neurological complications. Opisthorchiasis, Toxoplasmosis, and Tuberculosis do not typically present with the specific triad described in the question. Opisthorchiasis is a parasitic infection, Toxoplasmosis is caused by a protozoan, and Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: peak effect. When drug receptors are maximally activated, it means the drug has reached its highest effectiveness, resulting in the peak effect. This occurs when the drug concentration is at its highest level in the body, leading to the maximum response. Threshold level (A) refers to the minimum amount of drug needed to produce a response. Cessation effect (C) is when the drug's effect wears off. Latency time (D) is the time it takes for the drug to start producing an effect. So, the peak effect best describes the scenario where drug receptors are maximally activated.